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Daily Quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2023 | 23rd July, 2022 – UPSC 2023 – Free PDF

Daily Quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2023 | 23rd July, 2022 – UPSC 2023 – Free PDF_4.1

Q.) Darlong community belongs to which state ?

  1. Tripura
  2. Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Manipur
  4. Nagaland

Q.) डार्लोंग समुदाय किस राज्य से संबंधित है?

  1. त्रिपुरा
  2. अरुणाचल प्रदेश
  3. मणिपुर
  4. नगालैंड
  • Darlong is a tribal community of Tripura, which has a population of 11,000.
  • The community has a high prevalence of education and cultural activities and members of the community serve in senior positions in the local administration.

Q.) Consider the following statement regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy:

  1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 amended the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (MTP Act).
  2. The Act increases the gestation period of women seeking abortion up from 20 weeks to 24 weeks.

Q.) Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.) मेडिकल टर्मिनेशन ऑफ प्रेग्नेंसी के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:

  1. मेडिकल टर्मिनेशन ऑफ प्रेग्नेंसी (संशोधन) एक्ट, 2021 ने मेडिकल टर्मिनेशन ऑफ प्रेग्नेंसी एक्ट, 1971 (एमटीपी एक्ट) में संशोधन किया।
  2. अधिनियम गर्भपात चाहने वाली महिलाओं की गर्भधारण अवधि को 20 सप्ताह से बढ़ाकर 24 सप्ताह कर देता है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

  1. केवल 1
  2. केवल 2
  3. दोनों 1 और 2
  4. तो 1 और ही 2

Q.) Consider the following statements :

  1. Global Innovation Index is released by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
  2. Karnataka has bagged the top rank in NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index, 2022.
  3. Telangana ranked last in NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index, 2022.

Which of the above statements are  correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:

  1. ग्लोबल इनोवेशन इंडेक्स विश्व बौद्धिक संपदा संगठन (डब्ल्यूआईपीओ) द्वारा जारी किया जाता है।
  2. कर्नाटक ने नीति आयोग के इंडिया इनोवेशन इंडेक्स, 2022 में शीर्ष स्थान हासिल किया है।
  3. 3.तेलंगाना NITI Aayog के इंडिया इनोवेशन इंडेक्स, 2022 में अंतिम स्थान पर है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन से कथन सही हैं?

  1. केवल 1 और 2
  2. केवल 2 और 3
  3. केवल 1 और 3
  4. 1, 2 और 3
  • Karnataka has bagged the top rank in NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index, 2022, which determines innovation capacities and ecosystems at the sub-national level. 
  • In the Index released on Thursday, Manipur secured the lead in the Northeast and Hill States category, while Chandigarh was the top performer in the Union Territories and City States category.
  • Karnataka was followed by Telangana, Haryana, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar and Gujarat were at the bottom of the index.

Q.) Consider the following statement regarding President rule:

  1. The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on Grounds mentioned in Article 356 only.
  2. A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one months from the date of its issue.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.) राष्ट्रपति शासन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:

  1. अनुच्छेद 356 के तहत राष्ट्रपति शासन की घोषणा की जा सकती है केवल अनुच्छेद 356 में वर्णित आधार।
  2. राष्ट्रपति शासन लगाने की घोषणा को संसद के दोनों सदनों द्वारा इसके जारी होने की तारीख से एक महीने के भीतर अनुमोदित किया जाना चाहिए।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

  1. केवल 1
  2. केवल 2
  3. दोनों 1 और 2
  4. तो 1 और ही 2
  • The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds–one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365:
  1. Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor’s report).
  1. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
  • A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.

Q.) Warli Painting belongs to which state ?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Karnataka
  4. Maharashtra

Q.) वारली पेंटिंग किस राज्य से संबंधित है?

  1. आंध्र प्रदेश
  2. राजस्थान
  3. कर्नाटक
  4. महाराष्ट्र

Warli Paintings:

  • Maharashtrais known for its Warli folk paintings.
  • Its roots may be traced to as early as the 10th century A.D.
  • They bear a resemblance to those created in the Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka.
  • Scenes portraying hunting, fishing and farming, festivals and dances, trees and animals are used to surround the central theme of the painting.
  • Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings.

Q.) ‘Banthia Commission’ is related to

  1. Cheetah Relocation
  2. Electric Vehicle
  3. Reservation in Local Bodies
  4. Ethanol Blending

Q.) बंथिया आयोगसंबंधित है

  1. चीता स्थानांतरण
  2. विद्युत् वाहन
  3. स्थानीय निकायों में आरक्षण
  4. इथेनॉल सम्मिश्रण

The previous tripartite Maha Vikas Aghadi (MVA) government had appointed a dedicated commission under former Chief Secretary Jayant Banthia in March 2022 after the Supreme Court rejected the SBCC report citing several lacunae.

Q.) Consider the following statement regarding Asian Development Bank:

  1. ADB releases Asian Development Outlook report.
  2. Japan and USA holds the largest share proportion of shares in ADB.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.) एशियाई विकास बैंक के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:

  1. ADB ने एशियाई विकास आउटलुक रिपोर्ट जारी की।
  1. जापान के पास एडीबी में शेयरों का सबसे बड़ा हिस्सा है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

  1. केवल 1
  2. केवल 2
  3. दोनों 1 और 2
  4. तो 1 और ही 2

ADO is a series of annual economic reports on the Developing Member Countries (DMCs) of the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

About ADB:

  • It is a regional development bank.
  • established on 19 December 1966.
  • headquartered — Manila, Philippines.
  • official United Nations Observer.

Who can be its members?

  • The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East or ECAFE) and non-regional developed countries.
  • ADB now has 68 members, 49 from within Asia.

Voting rights:

  • It is modeled closely on the World Bank, and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions.
  • As of 31 December 2019, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).

Q.) Consider the following statement regarding Anti Defection Law:

  1. The Tenth Schedule – popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act – was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
  2. There is no scope of Judicial review of Speaker decision.

Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.) दलबदल विरोधी कानून के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:

  1. दसवीं अनुसूचीजिसे दलबदल विरोधी अधिनियम के रूप में जाना जाता हैको 52वें संशोधन अधिनियम, 1985 के माध्यम से संविधान में शामिल किया गया था।
  2. अध्यक्ष के निर्णय की न्यायिक समीक्षा की कोई गुंजाइश नहीं है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन गलत है/हैं?

  1. केवल 1
  2. केवल 2
  3. दोनों 1 और 2
  4. तो 1 और ही 2
  • Parliament added it to the Constitution as the Tenth Schedule in 1985.
  • Its purpose was to bring stability to governments by discouraging legislators from changing parties.
  • The Tenth Schedule – popularly known as theAnti-Defection Act – was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
  • The Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan versus Zachillu and Others, 1992 has said that judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman.
  • Judicial Review:It had said that even the scope of judicial review against an order of a Speaker or Chairman in anti-defection proceedings would be confined to jurisdictional errors, that is infirmities based on violation of constitutional mandate, mala fide actions and non-compliance with rules of natural justice.

 

Q.) Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

(a) The Right to Equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Right to Freedom
(d) The Concept of Welfare

Q.) भारतीय संविधान के तहत, धन का संकेंद्रण उल्लंघन करता है

(A) समानता का अधिकार
(B) राज्य नीति के निदेशक सिद्धांत
(C) स्वतंत्रता का अधिकार
(D) कल्याण की अवधारणा

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 39 in the Constitution Of India states Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State: The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing:

  • that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to sub-serve the common good;
  • that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment;

Article 39 (b) and (c) are the two most important directive principles that pledge to minimize the concentration of wealth.

Q.) Constitutional government means

(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Q.) संवैधानिक सरकार का मतलब

(A) संघीय ढांचे वाले राष्ट्र की प्रतिनिधि सरकार
(B) एक सरकार जिसका मुखिया नाममात्र शक्तियों का आनंद लेता है
(C) एक सरकार जिसका मुखिया वास्तविक शक्तियों का आनंद लेता है
(D) संविधान की शर्तों द्वारा सीमित सरकार

Answer: (d) Explanation:

Constitutional government in essence is about constitutionalism which is about limited government. It is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity— that effectively controls the exercise of political power.

In many cases, constitutional government is used interchangeably with “constitutionally limited government” or “limited government”.

 

 

Quiz For UPSC Prelims Exam| Free PDF

 

Daily Quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2023 | 23rd July, 2022 – UPSC 2023 – Free PDF_4.1

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