Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC / IAS / 14-09-19 | Free PDF

MCQ 1

1. District Mineral Foundations were instituted under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Act 2015.
2. Their main aim was to raise revenue and mineral production district wise.

Choose correct

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• DMFs were instituted under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Act 2015.
• They are non-profit trusts to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining-related operations in such manner as may be prescribed by the State Government.
• Jurisdiction: Its manner of operation comes under the jurisdiction of the relevant State Government.
• The various state DMF rules and the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Khestra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) guidelines stipulate some “high priority” issues for DMFs, including:
• Drinking water.
• Health
• Women and child welfare.
• Education
• Livelihood and skill development.
• Welfare of aged and disabled.
• Sanitation

Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY):

• The programme is meant to provide for the welfare of areas and people affected by mining related operations, using the funds generated by District Mineral Foundations (DMFs).

 Objectives of the scheme:

• To implement various developmental and welfare projects/programs in mining affected areas that complement the existing ongoing schemes/projects of State and Central Government.
• To minimize/mitigate the adverse impacts, during and after mining, on the environment, health and socio-economics of people in mining districts.
• To ensure long-term sustainable livelihoods for the affected people in mining areas.
• Amendments to District Mineral Foundation (DMF) Trust Rules, 2015, by Chhattisgarh government has made it more inclusive, people-centric and will also empower people affected by mining in the state, according to Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), a New Delhi-based non-profit.

Background:

• Chhattisgarh became the first state in July 2019, to amend DMF rules.
• The new rule mandates the inclusion of 10 Gram Sabha members directly from miningaffected areas in the DMF Governing Council (GC).
• In Scheduled Areas, at least 50 per cent of the Gram Sabha members must be from Scheduled Tribes (ST).
• To ensure better public accountability, a two-step social audit process has been mandated.
• Provisions have also been introduced for five-year plan, which can be subjected to a third party review if the secretary of the mines department considers it to be necessary.
• The rules have also specified ‘sustainable livelihood’ as a high priority issue, including for forest rights holders.

MCQ 2

1. The National Pension Scheme for Traders and Self Employed Persons Yojana (Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-dhan Yojana) who earns 15000 rs per month or less
2. 100% contributions will be there by central govt. as subsidy into subscriber’s pension account every month

Choose correct

(A) Only
2 (B) Only 1
(C) Both
 (D) None

• It is a pension scheme for the Vyaparis (shopkeepers/retail traders and self-employed persons) with annual turnover not exceeding Rs 1.5 crore.
• It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme.
• The enrolment under the scheme is free of cost for the beneficiaries.
• The enrolment is based upon self-certification.
• It has a provision for minimum assured pension of Rs 3,000/- monthly on attaining the age of 60 years.
• The Central Government shall give 50 % share of the monthly contribution and remaining 50% contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
• This scheme will target enrolling 25 lakh subscribers in 2019-20 and 2 crore subscribers by 2023-2024. An estimated 3 crore Vyaparis in the country are expected to be benefitted under the pension scheme.

Eligibility:

• Beneficiary is required to have an Aadhaar card and a saving bank/ Jan-dhan Account passbook only.
• He/ She should be within 18 to 40 years of age group.
• GSTIN is required only for those with turnover above Rs. 40 lakhs.
• The beneficiary should not be income tax payer and also not a member of EPFO/ESIC/NPS (Govt.)/PM-SYM.

MCQ 3

1. Salmonella is a type of algae
2. Recently it was found to be useful for humans to eat as it has good amount of protein

Choose correct

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• Salmonella
• Indian MDH sambar masala were recalled from retail stores in US after tests by the US-FDA showed positive for ‘Salmonella’.
• MDH is a top Indian cooking brand which is selling various spice mixes that are key to Indian cooking.
• Salmonella is a group of ‘bacteria’ that can cause food-borne illnesses known as Salmonellosis.
• It is commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals.
• It can also be found on raw meats, poultry, eggs and in unpasteurized milk.
• It causes an illness if ‘live Salmonella bacteria’ enters the body.
• The bacteria can attach to the cells lining the intestines where they produce toxins and attack the intestinal cells.
• According to estimates by the US ‘Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’ (CDC),
• Salmonella causes 1.2 million illnesses and about 450 deaths in the US every year.
• In a majority of these cases, food is the source of the illness.
• Individuals who develop salmonellosis may show symptoms such as nausea, diarrhoea, fever and abdominal cramps.
• Usually, the illness lasts for 4-7 days, and most people recover without treatment.
• In some cases the diarrhoea is severe and there is risk of it spreading from the intestines to other parts of the body.
• WHO identifies ‘Salmonella’ as one of four key global causes of diarrhoeal diseases.
• ‘Salmonella bacteria’ are widely distributed in domestic and wild animals.
• They are prevalent in food animals such as poultry, pigs, and cattle, as well as in pets, including cats, dogs and birds.
• ‘Salmonellosis’ in humans is generally contracted through the consumption of contaminated food of animal origin.
• It also pass through other foods, including green vegetables contaminated by manure.
• Person-to-person transmission can also occur through the faecal-oral route.

MCQ 4

1. Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) Research and Development (R&D) Hub is an initiative of G 7 countries
2. India is not a member Choose correct

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
 (D) None

• India joins the Global Antimicrobial Resistance Research and Development Hub as a new member.

Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) Research and Development (R&D) Hub:

• Launched in May 2018 in the margins of the 71st session of the World Health Assembly, following a call from G20 Leaders in 2017.
• Members: 16 countries, the European Commission, two philanthropic foundations and four international organisations (as observers).
• Functions: Supports global priority setting and evidence-based decision-making on the allocation of resources for AMR R&D through the identification of gaps, overlaps and potential for cross-sectoral collaboration and leveraging in AMR R&D.
• Secretariat: established in Berlin.
• Finance: through grants from the German Federal Ministry of Education and Research (BMBF) and the Federal Ministry of Health (BMG).
• Basically, superbugs are becoming more powerful and widespread than ever. Medical experts are afraid that we’re one step away from deadly, untreatable infections, since the mcr-1 E.coli is resistant to that last-resort antibiotic Colistin. Antibiotic-resistance is passed relatively easily from one bacteria to the next, since it is transmitted by way of loose genetic material that most bacteria have in common.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) is afraid of a post-antibiotic world, where loads of bacteria are superbugs. Already, infections like tuberculosis, gonorrhea, and pneumonia are becoming harder to treat with typical antibiotics.

MCQ 5

Bioterrorism is related to

1. Destroying bio research by terrorists
2. Movement against vaccines by terror groups
3. Using dangerous animals like snakes & snow leopards in border infiltration
4. Intentional release of biological agents (bacteria, viruses, or other germs)

MCQ 6

1. The original 1989 SC/ST Act bars anticipatory bail.
2. Crimes among SCs and STs or between STs and SCs also come under the purview of this Act

Choose correct

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

MCQ 7

1. The Tejas is the 1st supersonic fighter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
2. The final operating clearance has not been given to it till now.

Choose correct

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• The HAL Tejas is an Indian single-engine, delta wing, multirole light fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy. It came from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) programme, which began in the 1980s to replace India’s ageing MiG-21 fighters. In 2003, the LCA was officially named “Tejas”.
• Tejas has a tail-less compound delta-wing configuration with a single dorsal fin. This provides better highalpha performance characteristics than conventional wing designs. Its wing root leading edge has a sweep of 50 degrees, the outer wing leading edge has a sweep of 62.5 degrees, and trailing edge has a forward sweep of four degrees. It integrates technologies such as relaxed static stability, fly-by-wire flight control system, multi-mode radar, integrated digital avionics system and composite material structures. It is the smallest and lightest in its class of contemporary supersonic combat aircraft.
• The Tejas is the second supersonic fighter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) after the HAL HF-24 Marut.
• As of 2016 the Tejas Mark 1 was in production for the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the naval version was undergoing flight tests for Indian Navy (IN). The projected requirement for the IAF was 200 single-seat fighters and 20 twin-seat trainers, while the IN expected to operate atleast 40 single-seat fighters. The first Tejas IAF unit, No. 45 Squadron IAF Flying Daggers was formed on 1 July 2016 with first 2 aircraft. Initially stationed at Bangalore, 45 Squadron was later relocated to its home base at Sulur, Tamil Nadu. The Minister of State for Defence, Subhash Bhamre, reported to parliament that the indigenous content of the Tejas was 59.7% by value and 75.5% by number of line replaceable units in 2016.
• As of 2019, the planned number of Tejas in Indian Air Force inventory, is a total 324 aircraft of several variants. The first batch consists of 40 Mark 1 aircraft, 16 IOC standard (already delivered) and 16 FOC standard (delivery to commence by end of 2019), followed by 8 trainers. Next 83 are to be of upgraded Mark 1A standard. By the time these first 123 are delivered, the Tejas Mark 2 is expected to be ready for series production by 2025-26

MCQ 8

The Athi Varadar festival has started in which of the following states?

[A] Kerala
[B] Odisha
 [C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Karnataka

• In Tamil Nadu, the Kanchi Athi Varadar festival has started in Kanchipuram from July 1, 2019. The temple of Varadar is in Kancheepuram. The deity is made of fig tree and hence the name Athi Varadar. He is immersed in Anantasaras, the temple tank. He is brought out once in 40 years, pujas done for 45 days and restored to his water bed. The last time he came out was on July 2, 1979, and earlier on July 12, 1939. More than one lakh devotees thronged the temple on the first day.

 MCQ 9

1. K2-18b’ is an ‘exoplanet’ discovered in 2015 by NASA’s ‘Kepler spacecraft’ in Kuiper Belt.
2. It may possibly has life forms as its mass, volume & rotational periods are similar to Earth

 Choose correct

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

K2-18b

• ‘K2-18b’ is an ‘exoplanet’ discovered in 2015 by NASA’s ‘Kepler spacecraft’.
• Now, scientists have found signatures of ‘Water vapour’ in the atmosphere of K2-18b.
• This makes it the only planet outside Solar system with temperatures and water vapour that can potentially support life.
• It is about 110 light years from Earth, and 8 times the mass of Earth, orbits a star.
• It resides in a habitable zone, the region around a star in which liquid water could potentially pool on surface of a rocky planet.
• K2-18b is not ‘Earth 2.0’ as it is significantly heavier and has a different atmospheric composition.
• The researchers used data from the ‘Hubble Space Telescope’ and analysed the K2-18b’s atmosphere.
• The results revealed the molecular signature of water vapour, indicating, presence of hydrogen and helium in its atmosphere.

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