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Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC 2020 / IAS / 06-12-19 | Free PDF

Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC 2020 / IAS / 06-12-19 | Free PDF_4.1
MCQ 1

  1. Arjun is the Indian name given to T90 tank that was procured from Russia
  2. It is procured under the new SP model

 Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D)None

  • Arjun is a third generation main battle tank developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), for the Indian Army
  • T90 is a Russian tank.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC 2020 / IAS / 06-12-19 | Free PDF_5.1

  • On 17 September 2013, India’s Defence Ministry approved the production of 235 T-90 tanks under Russian licence for $1 billion.
  • On 11 November 2019, India announced that Heavy Vehicles Factory will produce 464 T-90S MBTs
  • In 2001, India purchased 310 T-90S tanks from Russia, of which 124 were delivered complete and 186 were to be assembled from kits delivered in various stages of completion with an emphasis on shifting production to domestic means.
  • The T-90 was selected because it is a direct development of the T-72 that India already manufactures with 60% parts commonality with T90, simplifying training and maintenance.
  • India opted to acquire the T-90 in response to numerous delays in the production of its own domestically developed Arjun main battle tank, and to counter Pakistani deployment of the Ukrainian-made T-80 tanks in 1995–97.

An Assessment of the Strategic Partnership Model in Defence Industry

  • In a major policy reform intended to promote Make in India in defence manufacturing, the Ministry of Defence (MoD) announced    on May 31, 2017 the much-anticipated Strategic Partnership model for the Indian private sector.
  • The model, whose concept was first suggested by the Dhirendra Singh Committee in its July 2015 report, populates Chapter VII of the Defence Procurement Procedure 2016 (DPP 2016). An
  • It visualises designating a few private companies as Strategic Partners (SPs) that would not only assume the role of system integrators but also lay a strong defence industrial foundation by making long-term investment on production and R&D infrastructure, creating a wider vendor base, nurturing a pool of skilled workforce, and making a commitment to indigenisation and technology absorption.
  • The ultimate aim of the model is to enhance India’s self-reliance index in defence procurement which continues to remain at an abysmally low level despite a huge defence industrial complex much of which is managed by state-owned Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) and the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).

MCQ 2

  1. Prithvi II is an indigenously developed surface-to-air nuclearcapable missile.
  2. It’s a short-range cruise missile (SRBM) developed by DRDO of India under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP)

Choose correct
(A)Only 1
(B)Only 2
(C) Both
(D)None

  • Prithvi II class is also a single-stage liquid-fueled missile having a maximum warhead mounting capability of 500 kg, but with an extended range of 250 km (160 mi).
  • It was developed with the Indian Air Force being the primary user.
  • It was first test-fired on 27 January 1996 and the development stages were completed in 2004.
  • The missile features measures to deceive anti-ballistic missiles.
  • The missile was inducted into India’s Strategic Forces Command in 2003, and it was the first missile developed under the IGMDP.
  • According to news sources the range is now increased to 350 km (220 mi) and the payload capacity now ranges between 500 – 1000 kg.
  • On June 2, India successfully test-fired its indigenous nuclear-capable Prithvi-II missile.
  • The missile, capable of carrying payloads of up to 1,000kg, was inducted into the armed forces in 2003.
  • It is the first to be developed by the Defence Research and Development Organization under its Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Variants:
  • The Prithvi missile project encompassed developing three variants for use by the Indian Army, Indian Air Force and the Indian Navy.
  • Prithvi I (SS-150) – Army version (150 km (93 mi) range with a payload of 1,000 kg (2,200 lb))
  • Prithvi II (SS-250) – Air Force version (350 km (220 mi) range with a payload of 500 kg (1,100 lb))
  • Prithvi III (SS-350) – Naval version (350 km (220 mi) range with a payload of 1,000 kg (2,200 lb))
  • The Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was an Indian Ministry of Defence programme for the research and development of the comprehensive range of missiles.
  • The programme was managed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Ordnance Factories Board in partnership with other Indian government political organizations.
  • The project started in 1982–83 under the leadership of Abdul Kalam who oversaw its ending in 2008 after these strategic missiles were successfully developed.
  • On 8 January 2008, the DRDO formally announced the successful completion of the IGMDP.

MCQ 3

  1. Small finance banks are a type of niche banks in India.
  2. Payments banks willing to convert themselves into small finance banks (SFBs) can apply for such a licence only after five years of operations with 100 crore minimum capital

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

  •  RBI lays down guidelines for payments banks’ SFB licence Approval only after 5 years of operations, says central bank
  • Payments banks willing to convert themselves into small finance banks (SFBs) can apply for such a licence only after five years of operations
  • The minimum capital for setting up an SFB has been mandated at ₹200 crore,
  • The banking regulator also added that it decided to bring UCBs with assets of ₹500 crore and above, under the reporting framework of the Central Repository of Information on Large Credits (CRILC).

Small finance banks are a type of niche banks in India. Banks with a small finance bank license can provide basic banking service of acceptance of deposits and lending. The aim behind these to provide financial inclusion to sections of the economy not being served by other banks, such as small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganized sector entities
MCQ 4
The Foreign exchange reserves of India consists of these categories

  1. Gold
  2. World Bank Grants
  3. Foreign Currency Assets
  4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
  5. Foreign direct & Portfolio investment
  6. Reserve Tranche Position

(A) 3 only
(B) 3 & 4
(C) 1,3,4,6
(D) All

  • The rise in foreign exchange reserves will give the central bank the firepower to act against any sharp depreciation of the rupee
  • At $451.7 billion, the country’s import cover is now over 11 months.
  • Reserve Bank of India Act and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 set the legal provisions for governing the foreign exchange reserves.
  • Reserve Bank of India accumulates foreign currency reserves by purchasing from authorized dealers in open market operations. Foreign exchange reserves of India act as a cushion against rupee volatility once global interest rates start rising. The Foreign exchange reserves of India consists of below four categories;
  1. Foreign Currency Assets
  2. Gold
  3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
  4. Reserve Tranche Position

Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC 2020 / IAS / 06-12-19 | Free PDF_6.1
MCQ 5

  1. Eat Right Movement was launched by UNICEF India in india
  2. The movement aims to cut down salt/sugar and oil consumption by 30% in three years.

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

About Eat Right Movement:

  • It was launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
  • The movement aims to cut down salt/sugar and oil consumption by 30% in three years.
  • It also aims to engage and enable citizens to improve their health and well-being by making the right food choices.
  • FSSAI has put in place robust regulatory measures under three major pillars:
  • Eat Safe, Eat Health and Eat Sustainably for the programme.
  • FSSAI has prescribed a limit for Total Polar Compounds (TPC) at 25% in cooking oil to avoid the harmful effects of reused cooking oil.

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

  • It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India.
  • The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India.
  • FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
  • The FSSAI is headed by a non-executive Chairperson, appointed by the Central Government, either holding or has held the position of not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.

Other initiatives by FSSAI Green Purple Initiative

  • FSSAI also launched the

Green Purple initiative logo.

  • The initiative aims to qualify the chefs on food safety legal requirements and sustainable cooking methods, in order to promote trans-fat free cooking.
  • It will be a six months program that includes key areas of trans-fat free cooking, using less sodium, and hygienic, seasonal, eco-friendly, less energy consuming cooking methods.
  • The chefs shall thereafter ensure global standards of food safety and sustainable environment practices

Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC 2020 / IAS / 06-12-19 | Free PDF_7.1

  • Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched the “Trans Fat Free” logo of Food Safety & Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
  • This marked an important milestone in the movement against TransFats and also provided a momentum to accelerate the ‘Eat Right India’ movement of FSSAI.

 About the logo

  • The food establishments which use trans-fat free oil and do not have industrial trans-fat more than 0.2g/100g of food, in compliance with the Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2018 can display “Trans-fat free” logo at their outlets and on their food products.
  • The use of the said logo is voluntary.

 MCQ 6
 Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the government to block any information generated, transmitted, received, stored or hosted in any computer resource in the interest of

  1. sovereignty and integrity of India
  2. defence of India
  3. friendly relations with foreign states
  4. Protection of minorities
  5. preventing incitement to the commission of any offence

(A) 1 & 2
(B) 1,2,3
(C) 1,2,3,5
(D) All

  • Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, empowers the government to block any information generated, transmitted, received, stored or hosted in any computer resource in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognisable offence relating to above.

MCQ 7

  1. India is signatory to Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (MIPAA)
  2. For that reason The Union Cabinet has approved The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Bill, 2019.

 Choose correct
 (A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

  • The Union Cabinet has approved The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens (Amendment) Bill, 2019.
  • It seeks to amend The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Bill, 2007.

What’s new in the bill:

  • Definition of ‘children’ and ‘parents’ , ‘maintenance’ and ‘welfare’ has been expanded.
  • Mode of submission of application for maintenance has been enlarged.
  • Ceiling of Rs 10,000/- as maintenance amount has been removed.
  • Preference to dispose of applications of senior citizens, above eighty years of age, early has been included.
  • Registration of Senior Citizens Care Homes/Homecare Service Agencies etc. have been included.
  • Minimum standards for senior citizen care homes has been included in the Bill.
  • Appointment of Nodal Police Officers for Senior Citizens in every Police Station and District level Special Police Unit for Senior Citizens has been included.
  • Maintenance of Helpline for senior citizens has been included.”

 MCQ 8

  1. 1933’s Montevideo Convention codifies the declarative theory of statehood.
  2. Bougainville is the newest nation formed under it

Choose correct
 (A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

Bougainville?

  • It is an island in the Pacific.

 Why in news?

  • It is holding a referendum to decide if it wants to remain a part of Papua New Guinea or become an independent country.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC 2020 / IAS / 06-12-19 | Free PDF_8.1
How does a territory become a new country?

  • There is no straightforward rule. A region’s quest for nationhood mainly depends on how many countries and international organizations it manages to convince to recognize it as a country.
  • The biggest sanction of nationhood is the United Nations recognizing a territory as a country

Why UN recognition matters?

  • With UN recognition, a new country has access to the World Bank, the IMF, etc.
  • Its currency is recognised, which allows it to trade.
  • There is protection against parent country’s aggression, and international trade.
  • And as per 1933’s Montevideo Convention, a region wanting to become independent should meet 4 criteria:
  • A country-hopeful must have a defined territory, people, government, and the ability to form relationships with other countries.
  • The Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States is a treaty signed at Montevideo, Uruguay, on December 26, 1933, during the Seventh International Conference of American States. The Convention codifies the declarative theory of statehood as accepted as part of customary international law.
  • The convention was signed by 19 states.
  • The convention became operative on December 26, 1934. It was registered in League of Nations Treaty Series on January 8, 1936 the declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law if it meets the following criteria:
  1.   a defined territory;
  2.  a permanent population;
  3.  a government and
  4. a capacity to enter into relations with other states.
  • According to declarative theory, an entity’s statehood is independent of its recognition by other states, as long as the sovereignty was not gained by military force

MCQ 9
 The main reason of Eutrophication is

  1. Climate change
  2. Extinction of key species
  3. Algal bloom
  4. Excessive minerals and nutrients
  • Eutrophication or hypertrophication, is when a body of water becomes overly enriched with minerals and nutrients which induce excessive growth of algae. This process may result in oxygen depletion of the water body. One example is an “algal bloom” or great increase of phytoplankton in a water body as a response to increased levels of nutrients. Eutrophication is often induced by the discharge of nitrate or phosphatecontaining detergents, fertilizers, or sewage into an aquatic system.

MCQ 10

  1. Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers Right Act, 2001 (PPVFR Act) is enacted by FAO
  2. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) recognized farmers’ rights as the rights to save, use, exchange and sell farm-saved seeds

 Choose correct
(A) Only 1
 (B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None
Today’s Article TH

  • The Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers Right Act, 2001 (PPVFR Act) is an Act of the Parliament of India that was enacted to provide for the establishment of an effective system for protection of plant varieties, the rights of farmers and plant breeders, and to encourage the development and cultivation of new varieties of plants.
  • In 1994, India signed the agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
  • In 2002, India also joined the International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants (UPOV) Convention.
  • Both TRIPS and UPOV led to the introduction of some form of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) over plant varieties. Member countries had to introduce restrictions on the free use and exchange of seeds by farmers unless the “breeders” were remunerated.
  • TRIPS and UPOV, however, ran counter to other international conventions. In 1992, the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) provided for “prior informed consent” of farmers before the use of genetic resources and “fair and equitable sharing of benefits” arising out of their use. • In 2001, the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) recognized farmers’ rights as the rights to save, use, exchange and sell farm-saved seeds. National governments had the responsibility to protect such farmers’ rights.
  • As India was a signatory to TRIPS and UPOV (that gave priority to breeders’ rights) as well as CBD and ITPGRFA (that emphasized farmers’ rights), any Indian legislation had to be in line with all. It was this delicate balance that the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) Act of 2001 sought to achieve.
  • The PPVFR Act retained the main spirit of TRIPS viz., IPRs as an incentive for technological innovation. However, the Act also had strong provisions to protect farmers’ rights.

 

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