Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC / IAS / 09-07-19 | PDF Downloads

MCQ 1

1. The World Heritage Committee selects the sites to be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites
2. It comprises of representatives from 21 state parties that are elected by the General Assembly of States Parties for a four-year term

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C)Both
(D) None
MCQ 2

1. A World Heritage Site is a landmark or area which is selected by UNESCO as having cultural, historical, scientific or other form of significance but its not legally protected
2. Once a site is declared as WHS then it ceases to be the legal territory of that country and it becomes a legal area under UNESCO international community 3. India has highest no. of WHSs in the world

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
 (D) None

• With Successful inscription of Jaipur City, India has 38 world heritage sites, that include 30 Cultural properties, 7 Natural properties and 1 mixed site.
• UNESCO world heritage site:
• A UNESCO World Heritage Site is a place that is listed by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.
• The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the General Assembly.
• Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the state wherein the site is located and UNESCO considers it in the interest of the international community to preserve each site.
• Selection of a site:
• To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an already classified landmark, unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable place having special cultural or physical significance (such as an ancient ruin or historical structure, building, city, complex, desert, forest, island, lake, monument, mountain, or wilderness area). It may signify a remarkable accomplishment of humanity, and serve as evidence of our intellectual history on the planet.
• Legal status of designated sites:
• UNESCO designation as a World Heritage Site provides prima facie evidence that such culturally sensitive sites are legally protected pursuant to the Law of War, under the Geneva Convention, its articles, protocols and customs, together with other treaties including the Hague Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict and international law.
• What are endangered sites?
• A site may be added to the List of World Heritage in Danger if there are conditions that threaten the characteristics for which the landmark or area was inscribed on the World Heritage List. Such problems may involve armed conflict and war, natural disasters, pollution, poaching, or uncontrolled urbanization or human development.
• This danger list is intended to increase international awareness of the threats and to encourage counteractive measures.
• Review: The state of conservation for each site on the danger list is reviewed on a yearly basis, after which the committee may request additional measures, delete the property from the list if the threats have ceased or consider deletion from both the List of World Heritage in Danger and the World Heritage List.
• The sites are intended for practical conservation for posterity, which otherwise would be subject to risk from human or animal trespassing, unmonitored/uncontrolled/unrestricted access, or threat from local administrative negligence. Sites are demarcated by UNESCO as protected zones. The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Program administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 “states parties” that are elected by their General Assembly.
• The programme catalogues, names, and conserves sites of outstanding cultural or natural importance to the common culture and heritage of humanity. Under certain conditions, listed sites can obtain funds from the World Heritage Fund. The program began with the Convention Concerning the Protection of the World’s Cultural and Natural Heritage, which was adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO on 16 November 1972. Since then, 193 state parties have ratified the convention, making it one of the most widely recognized international agreements and the world’s most popular cultural program.
• As of July 2019, a total of 1,121 World Heritage Sites (869 cultural, 213 natural, and 39 mixed properties) exist across 167 countries. Italy and China, both with 55 sites, have the most of any country, followed by Spain (48), Germany (46), France (45), India (38), and Mexico (35)

MCQ 3
Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019 amends which of these

1. Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
2. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885,
3. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002

Choose correct
(A) 1 & 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 & 3
(D) All

The Aadhaar and other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019

• The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 was promulgated on March 2, 2019. It amends the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016, the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. The Aadhaar Act provides targeted delivery of subsidies and benefits to individuals residing in India by assigning them unique identity numbers, called Aadhaar numbers. Previously, a similar Bill was passed by Lok Sabha on January 4, 2019. However, it will lapse with the dissolution of the 16th Lok Sabha.
• Offline verification of Aadhaar number holder: Under the Aadhaar Act, an individual’s identity may be verified by Aadhaar ‘authentication’. Authentication involves submitting the Aadhaar number, and their biometric or demographic information to the Central Identities Data Repository for verification. The Ordinance additionally allows ‘offline verification’ of an individual’s identity, without authentication, through modes specified by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) by regulations.
• During offline verification, the agency must (i) obtain the consent of the individual, (ii) inform them of alternatives to sharing information, and (iii) not collect, use or store Aadhaar number or biometric information.
• Voluntary use: The Act provides for the use of Aadhaar number as proof of identity of a person, subject to authentication. The Ordinance replaces this provision to state that an individual may voluntarily use his Aadhaar number to establish his identity, by authentication or offline verification. The Ordinance states that authentication of an individual’s identity via Aadhaar, for the provision of any service, may be made mandatory only by a law of Parliament.
• The Ordinance amends the Telegraph Act, 1885 and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 to state that persons with a license to maintain a telegraph, banking companies and financial institutions may verify the identity of their clients by:

(i) authentication or offline verification of Aadhaar,
(ii) passport, or
(iii) any other documents notified by the central government. The client has the choice to use either mode to verify his identity and no person shall be denied any service for not having an Aadhaar number.

• Entities using Aadhaar: Under the Act, usage of Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual, by the State or a body corporate under any law, is permitted. The Ordinance removes this provision. An entity may be allowed to perform authentication through Aadhaar, if the UIDAI is satisfied that it is: (i) compliant with certain standards of privacy and security, or (ii) permitted by law, or (iii) seeking authentication for a purpose specified by the central government in the interest of the State.
• Aadhaar number of children: The Ordinance specifies that at the time of enrolling a child to obtain an Aadhaar number, the enrolling agency shall seek the consent of his parent or guardian. The agency must inform the parent or guardian of the manner in which the information will be used, the recipients with whom it will be shared, and of their right to access the information. After attaining eighteen years of age, the child may apply for cancellation of his Aadhaar.
• Disclosure of information in certain cases: Under the Act, restrictions on security and confidentiality of Aadhaar related information do not apply in case the disclosure is pursuant to an order of a District Court (or above). The Ordinance amends this to allow such disclosure only for orders by High Courts (or above).
• Further, under the Act, an officer not below the rank of a Joint Secretary may issue directions for disclosing information in the interest of national security. The Ordinance amends this to allow such disclosure on directions of officers not below the rank of a Secretary.
• UIDAI Fund: Under the Act, all fees and revenue collected by the UIDAI will be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India. The Ordinance removes this provision, and creates the Unique Identification Authority of India Fund. All fees, grants, and charges received by the UIDAI shall be credited to this fund. The fund shall be used for expenses of the UIDAI, including salaries and allowances of its employees.
• Complaints: Under the Act, courts can take cognizance of an offence only if the UIDAI registers a complaint. The Ordinance amends this to allow the individual to register complaints in certain cases, including impersonation or disclosure of their identity.
• The Ordinance defines the Aadhaar ecosystem to include enrolling agencies, requesting agencies, and offline verification-seeking entities. It allows the UIDAI to issue directions to them if necessary for the discharge of its functions under the Act.
• Penalties: Under the Ordinance, the UIDAI may initiate a complaint against an entity in the Aadhaar ecosystem for failure to (i) comply with the Act or the UIDAI’s directions, and (ii) furnish information required by the UIDAI. Adjudicating Officers appointed by the UIDAI shall decide such matters, and may impose penalties up to one crore rupees on such entities. The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal shall be the appellate authority against decisions of the Adjudicating Officer.

MCQ 4

1. He became a life member of the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak Mandal), founded by Lala Lajpat Rai. There he started to work for the upliftment of backward classes, and later he became the President of that Society.
2. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna the India’s highest civilian award posthumously in 1966.
3. He signed Tashkent Declaration on 10 January, 1966 with the paksitan

Who is the personality
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Jai Narayan Vyas
(D) None

Lal Bahadur Shastri- related facts:

Pre- independence:

1. Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on 2nd October, 1904 at Mughalsarai, Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
2. He was given the title “Shastri” meaning “Scholar” by Vidya Peeth as a part of his bachelor’s degree award.
3. He introduced a slogan “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” and played a pivotal role in shaping India’s future.
4. He became a life member of the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak Mandal), founded by Lala Lajpat Rai. There he started to work for the upliftment of backward classes, and later he became the President of that Society.
5. He participated in the non-cooperation movement and the Salt Satyagraha.

Post- independence:

1. He was the second Prime Minister of Independent India.
2. In 1961, he was appointed as Home Minister, and he appointed the Committee on Prevention of Corruption. He created the famous “Shastri Formula” which consisted of the language agitations in Assam and Punjab.
3. He promoted the White Revolution, a national campaign to increase milk production. He also promoted the Green Revolution, to increase the food production in India.
4. In 1964, he signed an agreement with the Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, in concern with the status of Indian Tamils in Ceylon. This agreement is known as Srimavo-Shastri Pact.
5. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna the India’s highest civilian award posthumously in 1966.
6. He signed Tashkent Declaration on 10 January, 1966 with the paksitan President, Muhammad Ayub Khan to end the 1965 war.

MCQ 5

1. Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) Scheme is part of The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020
2. It was launched by NITI Aayog

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 is a National Mission document providing the vision and the roadmap for the faster adoption of electric vehicles and their manufacturing in the country. As part of the NEMMP 2020, Department of Heavy Industry formulated a Scheme viz. Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) Scheme in the year 2015 to promote manufacturing of electric and hybrid vehicle technology and to ensure sustainable growth of the same.
• The Phase-I of this Scheme was initially launched for a period of 2 years, commencing from 1 st April 2015, which was subsequently extended from time to time and the last extension was allowed up to 31st March 2019. The 1st Phase of FAME India Scheme was implemented through four focus areas namely (i) Demand Creation, (ii) Technology Platform, (iii) Pilot Project and (iv) Charging Infrastructure. Market creation through demand incentives was aimed at incentivizing all vehicle segments i.e. 2-Wheelers, 3-Wheelers Auto, Passenger 4- Wheeler vehicles, Light Commercial Vehicles and Buses.

MCQ 6
Utkarsh 2022 is related to

1. Organic farming
2. E-governance
3. RBI’s medium term strategy
4. Agricultural productivity goal by 2022

Utkarsh 2022

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalised a three- year roadmap to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank.
• This medium term strategy — named Utkarsh 2022 — is in line with the global central banks’ plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism.
• Worldwide, all central banks strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism; everybody is formulating a long-term plan and a medium-term plan.
• So, the RBI has also decided it will formulate a programme to outline what is to be achieved in the next three years.
• While around a dozen areas were identified by the committee, some board members felt that areas could be filtered and lesser number of areas can be identified for implementation in the next three years.

Why such move?

• The idea is that the central bank plays a proactive role and takes preemptive action to avoid any crisis.
• We are very much aware of the IL&FS debt default issue and the crisis of confidence the non-banking financial sector faced in the aftermath.

MCQ 7
“Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IMPDS)” is launched by ministry of

1. Finance
2. Rural development
3. Urban affairs
4. Consumer Affairs

MCQ 8

1. Agriculture Census is conducted at an interval of every five years by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare
2. the percentage of female operational holdings in the country have decreased from 2010-11 to 2015-16

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare

 Feminization of Agriculture

• As per Agriculture Census conducted at an interval of every five years by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, the percentage of female operational holdings in the country have increased from 12.78 percent during 2010-11 to 13.78 percent during 2015-16.
• In line with the provisions of National Policy for Farmers (NPF) (2007), the Department of Rural Development, Ministry of Rural Development is already implementing a programme exclusively for women farmers namely, Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP), which is a sub-component of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM). The primary objective of MKSP is to empower women by enhancing their participation in agriculture and to create sustainable livelihood opportunities for them. Funding support to the tune of up to 60% (90% for North Eastern States) for such projects is provided by the Government of India.
• The Department of Agriculture Cooperation and Farmers Welfare is also promoting mainstreaming of Gender Concerns in agriculture by ensuring flow of funds and benefits to the tune of 30% for women farmers under its beneficiary oriented Schemes and Programmes. Besides, Government is providing additional support and assistance to women farmers, over and above the male farmers under a few selected Schemes.
• This information was given by the Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers Welfare Shri Narendra Singh Tomar in a written reply in the Lok Sabha today.

MCQ 9

1. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers
2. National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) has been created under it

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• Availability of the drugs are being monitored through Drug and Vaccine Distribution Management System (DVDMS). DVDMS is a web-based Supply Chain Management System that deals in purchase, supply, distribution and inventory management of various drugs, sutures, surgical and consumable items. It has an in-built provision of monitoring and checking the availability of medicine at all facilities at district and state level. DVDMS links various Regional/ District Drug Warehouses (DWH), District Hospitals (DH), their sub stores like Community Health Centres (CHC) and Primary Health Centres (PHC). Moreover, it has the functionality for distribution of drugs to patients, thus enabling tracking of consumption till last mile.
• With an objective of making quality generic medicines available at affordable prices to all, PradhanMantriBhartiya Jan AushadhiPariyojana (PMBJP) was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers, Government of India. Under this scheme, dedicated outlets known as PradhanMantriBhartiyaJanaushadhiKendras (PMBJKs) are opened to sell generic medicines at affordable rates. . As on 21.06.2019, 5365 Pradhan PMBJKs are functional across the country.
• The WHO EML is a model list. The decision about which medicines are essential remains a national responsibility based on the country’s disease burden, priority health concerns, affordability concerns etc. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India hence prepared and released the first National List of Essential Medicines of India in 1996 consisting of 279 medicines. This list was subsequently revised in 2003 and had 354 medicines.
• Later in 2011, the list was revised and had 348 medicines.
• Till June 2018, 851 medicines (including 4 medical devices i.e. Cardiac stents, drug eluting stents, condoms and intra uterine devices) are regulated under Revised Schedule – I based on National List of Essential Medicines, 2015 (NLEM, 2015).
• The National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) is one of the key instruments in healthcare delivery system of a country which inter alia includes accessible, affordable quality medicine at all the primary, secondary, tertiary levels of healthcare. The primary purpose of NLEM is to promote rational use of medicines considering the three important aspects i.e. cost, safety and efficacy. Furthermore it promotes prescription by generic names. The list serves as a reference document for correct dosage form and strength for prescribing.
• Public health being a State subject, the number of essential medicines to be provided free of cost is decided by the States and varies from State to State. However, the Ministry has provided illustrative list of essential medicines that should be provided at Sub Centres, Primary Health Centres, Community Health Centres and District Hospitals. The list is available in public domain at nhsrcindia.org/sites/default/files/Facility wise essential Medicine 06 July-16.pdf. The list included: Name of the Facility No. of Medicines Sub-Centre 57 Primary Health Centre 285 Community Health Centre 455 District Hospital 544 Under Free Drugs Service Initiative (FDSI) of National Health Mission, financial support is provided to States / UTs for provision of free essential medicines in public health facilities based on the requirements posted by them in their Programme Implementation Plans (PIPs) within their overall resource envelope.

 

 
 

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