Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 24 February 2023

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2023

Q) Recently seen in news, the ‘Chicago Convention’ is related to which one of the following?

1. Development of international civil aviation
2. Conservation of the endangered species
3. Development of climate-resilient infrastructure
4. Checking the ocean pollution caused by marine shipping

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 23 February 2023

Explanation:

• Option (1) is correct: The Convention on International Civil Aviation, also known as the Chicago Convention was drafted in 1944. The agreement laid the foundation for the standards and procedures for peaceful global air navigation. It set out as its prime objective the development of international civil aviation in a safe and orderly manner and such that air transport services would be established on the basis of equality of opportunity and operated soundly and economically. As of March 2019, the Chicago Convention had 193 state parties, which includes all member states of the United Nations except Liechtenstein. The Chicago convention set forth the purpose of International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations linked to Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). The Union Cabinet has approved the ratification of three Protocols relating to amendments in the convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention), 1944. The ratification would affirm India’s commitment to the principles enshrined in the Convention on International Civil Aviation. The ratification would also provide better chances and opportunity for India to become more instrumental in matters pertaining to international civil aviation.

Q) Consider the following statements about the Representation of People’s Act (RPA), 1951:

1. As per the Act, providing false information about an electoral candidate’s qualifications is considered a corrupt practice.
2. An elected representative may be disqualified under the Act’s provisions for failing to disclose election expenses.
3. Elections are not annulled if a candidate seeks votes on the basis of their language.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court observed that providing false information about an electoral candidate’s qualifications cannot be considered a “corrupt practice” under Sections 123 (2) and Section 123 (4) of the Representation of People’s Act (RPA), 1951. Supreme Court was hearing a plea in ‘Anugrah Narayan Singh v. Harsh Vardhan Bajpayee’. Plea challenged a 2017 Allahabad High Court ruling, which held that a piece of false information regarding the educational qualification of an election candidate cannot be termed a ‘corrupt practice’ within the meaning of Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (the RP Act). Supreme Court refused to interfere with the High Court’s order of dismissal and observed that no one in India votes for a candidate based on their educational qualifications
• Statement 2 is correct: Section 123 of the Act defines ‘corrupt practices’ to include bribery, undue influence, false information, and promotion or attempted promotion of “feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language” by a candidate for increasing his/her prospects in the election. Section 123 (4) extends the ambit of “corrupt practices” to the intentional publication of false statements which can prejudice the outcome of the candidate’s election. Under the provisions of the Act, an elected representative can be disqualified if convicted of certain offences; on grounds of corrupt practices; for failing to declare election expenses; and for interests in government contracts or works.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In the Abhiram Singh v C.D. Commachen 2017, the court opined that the election will be annulled if votes are sought in the name of a candidate’s religion, race, caste, community, or language, as per Section 123 (3) which prohibits the same. In SR Bommai v. Union of India 1994, secularism is a part of the ‘basic structure’ and encroachment of religion into secular activities is strictly prohibited, citing subsection (3) of Section 123 of the RPA Act, 1951.

Q) With reference to ‘Geomagnetic storms’, consider the following statements:

1. They are disturbances in the magnetic field of the corona of the sun that occur once in a solar cycle.
2. Rare red auroras can be caused by the influence of such a geomagnetic storm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Geomagnetic storms are disturbances in the Earth’s magnetic field caused by fluctuations in the solar wind, a stream of charged particles flowing from the sun. The solar wind is made up of charged particles, mainly electrons and protons that are constantly streaming out from the Sun’s outermost layer, called the corona. When the solar wind encounters the Earth’s magnetic field, it creates a shock wave in the magnetosphere, the region around the Earth that is influenced by its magnetic field. The shock wave can cause the magnetic field lines in the magnetosphere to be compressed or stretched, which can result in a sudden release of energy.
• Statement 2 is correct: Rare red auroras were seen in the skies over Oregon, United States after a G-1 class Geomagnetic storm hit Earth recently. This energy release can cause the magnetic field to fluctuate rapidly, leading to a geomagnetic storm. The severity of a geomagnetic storm depends on several factors, including the strength and speed of the solar wind, as well as the orientation of its magnetic field relative to the Earth’s magnetic field. When the solar wind is strong and its magnetic field is aligned with the Earth’s magnetic field, it can cause more severe geomagnetic storms.

Q) Consider the following statements about Law Commission of India:

1. It is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India every five years.
2. It consists of no more than ten full-time and seven part-time members.
3. It has the authority to revoke any outdated legislation by itself.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Explanation:

• Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body, constituted by the Government of India from time to time. The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and is reconstituted from time to time. The composition of Law Commission:
• A full-time Chairperson
• Four full-time Members (including Member-Secretary)
• Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs as ex-officio Member
• Secretary, Legislative Department as ex officio Member
• Not more than five part-time Members
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister, approved the extension of the term of the Twenty-second Law Commission of India up to 2024. The responsibilities of the Law Commission are:
• Identification of laws which are no longer relevant and recommending the repeal of obsolete and unnecessary enactments.
• Suggesting enactment of new legislations as may be necessary to implement the Directive Principles and to attain the objectives set out in the Preamble of the Constitution.
• Considering and conveying to the Government its views on any subject relating to law and judicial administration that may be specifically referred to it by the Government.
• Considering the requests for providing research to any foreign countries as may be referred to by the Government.
• Preparing and submitting to the Government, the research undertaken by it.

Q) With reference to ‘Anopheles Stephensi’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a contagious fungus that spreads rapidly through contact with an infected person.
2. It originated in the Italian Peninsula and has expanded to several European countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Anopheles Stephensi, a deadly malaria vector from Asia, has been detected in Kenya. Anopheles stephensioriginated in Southeast Asia, West Asia and the Arabian Peninsula. It was Africa first reported in Djibouti (2012). Since then, this species has been expanding its geographic range in Ethiopia and Sudan, Somalia, and Nigeria. Anopheles stephensi is capable of transmitting both Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax malaria parasites. The species is reported to spread faster in different climatic conditions, especially in countries experiencing rapid urban development through devolution, like Kenya. Unlike other main malaria-causing mosquito vectors that primarily breed in rural areas, Anopheles stephensi is highly adaptive and can thrive in urban environments. Anopheles stephensi exploits several larval habitat types. The habitat types range from human-made water containers such as plastic tanks, cisterns, barrels, discarded tyres and plastic containers, to freshwater pools.

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