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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 6th September 2022

 

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2022

 

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Preventive detention

  1. Article 20 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
  2. A.K Gopalan v. The State of Madras, 1950: Under this case, the lawfulness of the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was tested. SC ruled that, if the detention was done in accordance with the procedure of law, it cannot be said that it violates the provisions contained in Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Indian Constitution.
  3. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978: The court noted that Article 21 does not exclude Article 19 and that any statute depriving a citizen of personal liberty will have to concurrently stand up to the scrutiny of Article 21 and Article 19.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Explanation:

Constitutional Provisions Related to Preventive Detention

  • Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. (Statement 1 is incorrect). Article 22 (4) states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless:
  • An Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
  • Such a person is detained in accordance with the provisions of any law made by the Parliament.
  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention, without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board, from three to two months.
  • However, this provision has not yet been brought into force, hence, the original period of three months continues.
  • Under Entry 9 of ‘Union List’, Parliament has the exclusive power to enact a law for preventive detention for the reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs, or security of India.
  • Under Entry 3 of ‘Concurrent List’, both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact such laws for the reasons related to maintenance of public order or maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community.
Important Judicial Pronouncements Related to Preventive Detention
  • A.K Gopalan v. The State of Madras, 1950: Under this case, the lawfulness of the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was tested. SC ruled that, if the detention was done in accordance with the procedure of law, it cannot be said that it violates the provisions contained in Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Indian Constitution. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978: The court noted that Article 21 does not exclude Article 19 and that any statute depriving a citizen of personal liberty will have to concurrently stand up to the scrutiny of Article 21 and Article 19. (Statement 3 is correct)
  • In August 2021, during a hearing on Ayodhya issue, Supreme Court asserted the following views on preventive detention:
  • Preventive detention is a necessary evil only to prevent public disorder.
  • State should not arbitrarily resort to ‘preventive detention’ to deal with all and sundry ‘law and order’ problems, which could be dealt with by the ordinary laws of the country.
  • Preventive detention must fall within the four corners of Article 21 (due process of law) read with Article 22 (safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention) and the statute in question.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise Vostok – 2022

  1. It is a multilateral strategic and command Exercise that has been conducted by Russia recently. VOSTOK (meaning ‘East’) is part of a system of strategic exercises that the Russian Armed Forces have started since 2019.
  2. The seven-day exercise comprises land and sea components only.
  3. Land exercises are being held at Russian military training facilities in Siberia and the Far Eastern Federal District.

Which of these statements are incorrect?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 only

Explanation:

The Exercise Vostok- 2022

  • About: It is a multilateral strategic and command Exercise that has been conducted by Russia recently. VOSTOK (meaning ‘East’) is part of a system of strategic exercises that the Russian Armed Forces have started since 2009.
  • Components: The seven-day exercise comprises land, air and sea components.
  • Land exercises are being held at Russian military training facilities in Siberia and the Far Eastern Federal District.
  • Maritime exercises are being held in the Sea of Okhotsk and the Sea of Japan, near the disputed South Kuril Islands, claimed by both Russia and Japan.

Q) Consider the following statements road accidents in India

  1. According to National Crime Records Bureau’s (NCRB) data, a record 155,622 lives were lost to road crashes and 371,884 were injured in 2021.
  2. A 2021 World Bank report states that with only 3% of the world’s vehicles, India accounts for 19% of all crash-related deaths. This is the highest in the world.
  3. Highest number of road accidents happen in Uttar Pradesh

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 2 only

Explanation:

About Road Accidents in India:

  • According to National Crime Records Bureau’s (NCRB) data, a record 155,622 lives were lost to road crashes and 371,884 were injured in 2021.
    • The numbers account for reported cases, actual numbers may be higher.
    • In 2020 1.33 lakh lives were lost due to road accidents.
  • A 2021 World Bank report states that with only 1% of the world’s vehicles, India accounts for 11% of all crash-related deaths. This is the highest in the world.
  • State-wise Distribution (2021):
  • Highest number of road accidents: Tamil Nadu
  • Most road accident-related deaths: Uttar Pradesh
  • Most deaths per accident: Bihar

 

NCRB Report
NCRB Report

 

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Grievance Redressal Index

  1. The index has been published by the Reserve Bank of India
  2. UIDAI has emerged out as the top performer in resolving the cases.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. None
  3. Both
  4. 1 only

Explanation:

About Grievance Redressal Index:

  • The index has been published by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
  • UIDAI has emerged out as the top performer in resolving the cases received through the Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS).
  • Dimensions of index:
  • Timely Disposal of Grievances:
    • Percentage of Grievances Disposed within 45 Days: 30%
    • Percentage of Grievances pending for more than 45 Days: 10%
  • Quality Disposal of Grievances:
    • Percentage of Grievances Redressed (closed) and received Feedback as Excellent & Very Good: 30%
    • Percentage of Grievances Redressed (closed) and received Feedback as Average & Poor: 20%
    • Percentage of Appeals Filed (on closed grievances): 10%

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Sedition in India

  1. Sedition was included as an offence in 1870 under section 124A of IPC through the Special Act XXVII.
  2. In Kedar Nath Singh vs State of Bihar, courts declared that Section 124A of the IPC was unconstitutional.
  3. The Supreme Court in Ram Nandan vs. State of Uttar Pradesh gave constitutional validity to sedition law.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. All of the above
  3. 1 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Sedition:

  • Sedition under IPC 124A is defined as an attempt to bring in hatred or contempt or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established according to the law.
  • Sedition was included as an offence in 1870 under section 124A IPC through the Special Act XXVII.

Judicial Opinion on Sedition

  • The Supreme Court in Romesh Thapar vs. State of Madras (1950) held that criticism of the government exciting disaffection or bad feelings towards it, cannot be regarded as a justifying ground for restricting the freedom of expression and of the press.
  • In Gopi Chand vs. The State (1951), and Ram Nandan vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (1959), courts declared that Section 124A of the IPC was unconstitutional.
  • The Supreme Court in Kedar Nath Singh vs State of Bihar (1962) gave constitutional validity to sedition law.
  • The court however said that unless accompanied by an incitement or call for violence, criticism of the government should not be called sedition.
  • In Balwant Singh vs. State of Punjab (1995), the Supreme Court said that the real intent of the speech must be taken into account before labelling it seditious.
  • In Rajat Sharma vs. the Union of India Case, 2021, the court ruled that disagreeing with the views and policies of the government will not be considered sedition.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding V. O. Chidambaram Pillai

  1. Pillai joined politics in 1905 after the Bengal Partition. He was part of the Swadeshi Movement initiated by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai.
  2. Pillai initiated the Tuticorin Coral Mills strike (1908) demanding better pay and a reduction in the number of working hours.
  3. Pillai established a shipping company by the name of the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNCo).

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. All of the above
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

About Chidambaram Pillai:

  • Pillai was also known as Kappalottiya Tamilan (The Tamil Helmsman) and Sekkizuththa Semmal.
  • Birth: Pillai was born on 5th September 1872 in Ottapidaram, Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu.
  • Political career: Pillai joined politics in 1905 after the Bengal Partition. He was part of the Swadeshi Movement initiated by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai.
  • Freedom movement: Pillai initiated the Tuticorin Coral Mills strike (1908) demanding better pay and a reduction in the number of working hours.
  • He resolved to carry out a procession celebrating release of BC Pal from Jail. He was arrested and imprisoned in the Central Prison in Coimbatore. His Barrister title was taken away by British.
  • Contributions: Pillai established a shipping company by the name of the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNCo).

Q) Consider the following statements regarding PM SHRI Yojana

  1. The PM-SHRI schools will be developed to become model schools, encapsulating the full spirit of the new National Education Policy.
  2. These schools will be equipped with modern infrastructure such as labs, smart classrooms, libraries, sports equipment, art room, etc
  3. The central sector scheme will be implemented by strengthening existing schools selected from amongst those managed by the Centre, states, Union Territories and local bodies.

Which of these statements are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Explanation:

About PM-SHRI:

  • The PM-SHRI schools will be developed to become model schools, encapsulating the full spirit of the new National Education Policy.
  • They will provide modern, transformational and holistic method of imparting education.
  • Increased emphasis will given be on a discovery oriented, learning centric way of teaching.
  • Infrastructure: These schools will be equipped with modern infrastructure such as labs, smart classrooms, libraries, sports equipment, art room, etc.
  • Objective: The schools will not only focus on qualitative teaching, learning and cognitive development but will also create holistic and well-rounded individuals equipped with key 21st-century skills.
  • The focus of the scheme will be on achieving proficiency in learning outcomes in every grade.
  • Selection of schools: The centrally sponsored scheme will be implemented by strengthening existing schools selected from amongst those managed by the centre, states, Union Territories and local bodies.
  • Assessment: Students will be assessed based on conceptual understanding and application of knowledge to real-life situations.

Q) Recently in news, Mamangam Festival, is a heritage festival of –

  1. Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
  2. Wayanad, Kerala
  3. Malappuram, Kerala
  4. Thrissur, Kerala

Explanation:

  • Recently, a few history researchers urged the Kerala government to declare Thirunavaya, in the present-day Malappuram district, a heritage village and protect the historical relics in the area.
  • Traders from various parts of India and places such as China, Ceylon, Arabia and Europe used to move to Thirunavaya to participate in Mamangam, the 28-day-long trade festival.
  • This trade festival was celebrated during the medieval times, once every 12 years on the banks of the Bharathappuzha (River of Bhārata), also known as the Nila or Ponnani River, in the state of Kerala.

Q) Which country has recently launched the world’s first needle-free, inhaled version of COVID – 19 vaccines?

  1. United Kingdom
  2. India
  3. USA
  4. China

Explanation:

  • Context: China became the first country to approve a needle-free, inhaled version of a Covid-19 vaccine.
  • About: The vaccine, called Convidecia Air or Ad5-nCoV, changes the liquid form of the vaccine into an aerosol using a nebulizer. The vaccine can then be inhaled through the mouth using the nebulizer machine.
  • How it works? Inhaled vaccines specifically target mucosal surfaces – the nose, throat and lungs, the point of entry for pathogens – to induce a localized immune response.
  • Carrier Virus: This vaccine uses harmless adenovirus as a carrier for the genetic code that teaches the body how to fight Covid.

 

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