Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC / IAS / 05-07-19 | PDF Downloads

MCQ 1

1. North East Venture Fund (NEVF) is Set up by North Eastern Development Finance Corporation Limited (NEDFi) in association with Ministry of finance
2. It is the first dedicated venture capital fund for the North Eastern Region.

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• About North East Venture Fund (NEVF):
• Set up by North Eastern Development Finance Corporation Limited (NEDFi) in association with Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (M-DoNER).
• It is the first dedicated venture capital fund for the North Eastern Region.
• Objective: to contribute to the entrepreneurship development of the NER and achieve attractive risk-adjusted returns through long term capital appreciation by way of investments in privately negotiated equity/ equity related investments.
• The investment under this schemer ranges from Rs. 25 lakh to Rs.10 crore per venture, which is long term in nature with investment horizon of 4-5 years.

MCQ 2

1. Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) is a sub scheme under Assistance to States for creating Infrastructure for the Development and growth of Exports (ASIDE).
2. The objective of the TIES is to enhance export competitiveness by bridging gaps in export infrastructure, creating focused export infrastructure and first-mile and last-mile connectivity. 3. Its 100% centrally funded scheme

Choose correct
(A) 1 & 2
 (B) 2 only
(C) 2 & 3
(D) All

• The Department of Commerce has approved financial assistance for three trade promotion centres under the ‘Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES)’.
• The scheme replaces a centrally sponsored scheme — Assistance to States for creating Infrastructure for the Development and growth of Exports (ASIDE).
• These centres are located in Manipur, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh.
• The Central and State Agencies, including Export Promotion Councils, Commodities Boards, SEZ Authorities and Apex Trade Bodies recognised under the EXIM policy of Government of India; are eligible for financial support under this scheme.
• The scheme would provide assistance for setting up and up-gradation of infrastructure projects with overwhelming export linkages like the Border Haats, Land customs stations, quality testing and certification labs, cold chains, trade promotion centres, dry ports, export warehousing and packaging, SEZs and ports/airports cargo terminuses.
• The Central Government funding will be in the form of grant-in-aid, normally not more than the equity being put in by the implementing agency or 50% of the total equity in the project. (In case of projects located in North Eastern States and Himalayan States including J&K, this grant can be upto 80% of the total equity).
• The grant in aid shall, normally, be subject to a ceiling of Rs 20 Cr for each infrastructure project.

MCQ 3

1. Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers’ Cadre) Bill, 2019, provides for reservation of teaching positions in central educational institutions for persons belonging to economically weaker sections.
2. For the purpose of such reservation, a Department in central educational institution will be regarded as one unit

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
 (D) None

• The Bill provides for reservation of teaching positions in central educational institutions for persons belonging to: (i) Scheduled Castes, (ii) Scheduled Tribes, (iii) socially and educationally backward classes, and (iv) economically weaker sections.
• Reservation of posts:The Bill provides for reservation of posts in direct recruitment of teachers (out of the sanctioned strength) in central educational institutions. For the purpose of such reservation, a central educational institution will be regarded as one unit. This implies that the allocation of teaching posts for reserved categories would be done on the basis of all positions of the same level (such as assistant professor) across departments.
• Coverage and exceptions: The Bill will apply to ‘central educational institutions’ which include universities set up by Acts of Parliament, institutions deemed to be a university, institutions of national importance, and institutions receiving aid from the central government.
• However, it excludes certain institutions of excellence, research institutions, and institutions of national and strategic importance which have been specified in the Schedule to the Bill. It also excludes minority education institutions.

 MCQ 4

1. Henley Passport Index 2019 is based on data provided by ICAO
2. India is ranked at 58^th

 Choose correct
(A)Only 1
(B)Only2
(C)Both
(D)None

• The Henley Passport Index (HPI) is a global ranking of countries according to the travel freedom for their citizens.
• It started in 2006 as Henley & Partners Visa Restrictions Index (HVRI) and was modified and renamed in January 2018.
• The HPI consists of a ranking of passports according to how many other territories can be reached ‘visa-free’.
• Japan and Singapore hold joint top spot on the Henley Passport Index.
• The latest Henley Passport Index 2019 ranks the Indian passport on the 86th position with a mobility score of 58. The score points out that Indian passport holders can access 58 countries around the world without a prior visa.
• India shares the 86th position with Mauritiana and Sao Tome and Principe.
• Afghanistan at 109th is last on the list with a visa-free/visa-on-arrival score of just 25.
• The rankings are done by Henley & Partners, the institution that spearheaded the concept of imbibing residence and citizenship planning.
• The ranking is based on all the passports of the world according to the number of countries their holders can travel to visa-free. The index is updated in real-time, as and when visa-policy changes come into effect.
• The data for the ranking is collected from the International Air Transportation Association (IATA) which maintains the world’s largest and most accurate database of travel information.

MCQ 5
Artemis program is related to

1. NCDs
2. Campaign for conservation of Rhinos
3. Manned Moon mission
4. None

• The Artemis program is an ongoing crewed spaceflight program carried out by NASA, U.S. commercial spaceflight companies, and international partners such as ESA, with the goal of landing the first woman and the next man on the lunar surface by 2024.
• Artemis would be the first step towards the long-term goal of establishing a sustainable presence on the Moon, laying the foundation for private companies to build a lunar economy, and eventually sending humans to Mars.
• NASA recently carried out a successful test of a launch-abort system for the Orion capsule designed to take U.S. astronauts to the Moon.

About Launch Abort System (LAS):

• It is designed to activate in the event of a rocket malfunction, on the pad or in flight.
• The LAS consists of three different types of solid-fuel rocket motors that will work in synchrony with one another.
• In case of a launch-pad or in-flight failure, the abort tower rocket provides 400,000 pounds of thrust, pulling the crew capsule away.

Background:

• The Orion spacecraft is a major component of NASA’s newly-named Artemis program, which aims to return U.S. astronauts to the lunar surface in 2024.

MCQ 6

1. 375 in The Indian Penal Code is related to rape definition
2. It’s a gender neutral law

 Choose correct
 (A)Only 1
(B)Only 2
(C)Both
(D)None

• Defending India’s gender-specific rape law under which the perpetrator of the offence can only be a ‘man’, the Centre has told the Delhi High Court that “the existing definition of rape under Section 375 (rape) should be left untouched”.

Why? (Arguments by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA):

• These sections have been enacted to protect and keep a check on the rising level of sexual offences against women in the country.
• The existing definition of rape under Section 375 should be left untouched as the “ambit of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, which covers all forms of sexual offences against minors, and Section 377 of the IPC were adequate to cover all sexual offences”.
• The MHA’s affidavit came in response to a public interest petition claiming that the existing law pertaining to rape was gender specific and protects only females.
• The High Court had previously asked the Centre to clarify its stand on the issue, particularly in view of the recommendation of the Law Commission of India, to make rape laws “gender neutral”.
• Arguments by the petitioner:
• Gender neutrality is a simple recognition of reality — men sometimes fall victim to the same, or at least very similar, acts to those suffered by women.
• Male rape is far too prevalent to be termed an anomaly or freak incident. By not having gender-neutral rape laws, we are denying a lot more men justice than is commonly thought.
• In India, sexual crimes against boys under 18 years are covered under the POCSO Act, but once they become adults they do not have any legal recourse.

Section 375 in The Indian Penal Code

Rape.—A man is said to commit “rape” who, except in the case hereinafter excepted, has sexual intercourse with a woman under circumstances falling under any of the six following descriptions:—

1. (First) — Against her will.
2. (Secondly) —Without her consent.
3. (Thirdly) — With her consent, when her consent has been obtained by putting her or any person in whom she is interested in fear of death or of hurt.
4. (Fourthly) —With her consent, when the man knows that he is not her husband, and that her consent is given because she believes that he is another man to whom she is or believes herself to be lawfully married.
5. (Fifthly) — With her consent, when, at the time of giving such consent, by reason of unsoundness of mind or intoxication or the administration by him personally or through another of any stupefying or unwholesome substance, she is unable to understand the nature and consequences of that to which she gives consent.
6. (Sixthly) — With or without her consent, when she is under sixteen years of age. Explanation.— Penetration is sufficient to constitute the sexual intercourse necessary to the offence of rape.
7. (Exception) —Sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife, the wife not being under fifteen years of age, is not rape.] STATE AMENDMENT

MCQ 7
Section 124A of IPC is related to

1. Election corrupt practices
2. Election fundings
3. Rules for exit polls & opinion polls during MCC
4. Sedition

• Section 124A in The Indian Penal Code
• Sedition.—Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, [***] the Government established by law in [India], [***] shall be punished with [imprisonment for life], to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.

Explanation 1.—The expression “disaffection” includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity. Explanation 2.—Comments expressing disapprobation of the measures of the Government with a view to obtain their alteration by lawful means, without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, do not constitute an offence under this section. Explanation 3.—Comments expressing disapprobation of the administrative or other action of the Government without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, do not constitute an offence under this section.

• The Union government has no plans to repeal sedition law as it is needed to effectively combat anti-national, secessionist and terrorist elements, Union Minister of State for Home Nityanand Rai told Rajya Sabha.

Why should it be scrapped?

• Draconian laws such as the Section 124-A only serve to give a legal veneer to the regime’s persecution of voices and movements against oppression by casting them as anti-national.
• The Supreme Court has persistently held that for the offence of sedition to be satisfied, there has to be a causal relationship between speech and acts of violence, and mere speech, regardless of how subversive it is, does not amount to sedition.
• All speech-related offences should be made bailable offences; this would lessen the harmful impact of using arrest and custody as a way of harassing anyone exercising their rights under Article 19(1)(a).
• The offences should be made non-cognizable so that there is at least a judicial check on the police acting on the basis of politically motivated complaints.
• In the case of hate speech, it is important to raise the burden of proof on those who claim that their sentiments are hurt rather than accept them at face value. And finally, it is crucial that courts begin to take action against those who bring malicious complaints against speech acts.

MCQ 8

1. Article 112 mentions the term budget in the constitution of india
2. The final receipts and expenditure of the government of india for that year, in this part referred also as the annual financial statement

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
 (D) None

112. Annual financial statement

(1) The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement
(2) The estimates of expenditure embodied in the annual financial statement shall show separately
(a) the sums required to meet expenditure described by the Condition as expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India; and
(b) the sums required to meet other expenditure proposed to be made from the Consolidated Fund of India, and shall distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure
(3) The following expenditure shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
(a) the emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office;
(b) the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People;
(c) debt charges for which the Government of India is liable including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges, and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt;
(d)(i) the salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court,
(ii) the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Federal Court,
(iii) the pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of any High Court which exercises jurisdiction in relation to any area included in the territory of India or which at any time before the commencement of this Constitution exercises jurisdiction in relation to any area included in a Governors Province of the Dominion of India;
(e) the salary, allowances and pension payable to or in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India;
(f) any sums required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal; (g) any other expenditure declared by this Constitution or by Parliament by law to be so charged
 

 

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