Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC / IAS / 06-08-19 | Free PDF

MCQ 1

Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air missiles (QRSAM) is built by

1. Russia
2. Israel
3. US
4. DRDO

• Press Information Bureau
• Government of India

Ministry of Defence

• DRDO successfully flight-tests state-of-the-art Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missiles against live aerial targets from ITR, Chandipur
• Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) today successfully flight-tested its state-of-the-art Quick Reaction Surfaceto-Air Missiles (QRSAM) against live aerial targets from Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur.
• Two missiles, developed by DRDO, were tested against two live targets meeting complete mission objectives of engaging the targets. QRSAM, with many state of the art technologies, engaged the targets at different ranges and altitudes.
• The systems have been tested in final configuration with RADAR mounted on a vehicle & missiles on the launcher.
• The systems are equipped with indigenously-developed Phased array radar, Inertial Navigation System, Data Link & RF seeker.
• The entire mission was captured by various Electro Optical Tracking Systems, Radar Systems and Telemetry Systems.
• The system is being developed for Indian Army with search and track on move capability with very short reaction time.
• Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh has congratulated DRDO and Industries on achieving the significant milestone.

MCQ 2

Fit and proper’ criteria by RBI is related with

1. Companies defaulting on loans
2. Companies with foreign presence
3. Nbfcs
4. Public sector banks

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has tightened the fit-andproper criteria for directors on the boards of state-run banks.
• The revised norms are applicable only to public sector banks (PSBs).
• Key changes proposed:
• As per the Reserve Bank of India (‘Fit and Proper’ Criteria for Elected Directors on the Boards of PSBs) Directions, 2019, all the banks — SBI and nationalized banks — are required to constitute a Nomination and Remuneration Committee (NRC).
• Centre’s nominee director shall not be part of the nomination and remuneration committee (NRC).
• The terms with regard to the NRC and the manner of the appointment of directors have been aligned with the practice in private banks, the recommendations made by the Banks Board Bureau, and with the provisions in the Companies Act.
• Composition of NRC: The NRC will have a minimum of three non-executive directors from amongst the board of directors. Of this, not less than one-half shall be independent directors and should include at least one member from the risk management committee of the board.
• Eligibility: As per the directions, the candidate who wants to become an elected director should at least be a graduate. He/She should be between 35-67 years old as on the cut-off date fixed for submission of nominations for election. The candidate should have special knowledge or practical experience in areas useful for banks.
• An elected director shall hold office for three years and shall be eligible for re-election, provided that no director hold office for a period exceeding six years, whether served continuously or intermittently.
• What will also be under scrutiny is the ‘list of entities’ in which a prospective director has an interest – to ascertain if such a firm is in default or has been in default in the past decade.
• The negative list says that:
• The candidate should not be a member of the board of any bank, the RBI, financial institution (FI), insurance company or a non-operative financial holding company (NOFHC).
• The candidate should not be connected with hire-purchase, financing, money lending, investment, leasing and other para-banking activities. But “investors of such entities would not be disqualified for appointment as directors if they do not enjoy any managerial control in them”.
• No person is to be elected or re-elected to a bank board if the candidate has served as a director in the past on the board of any bank, the RBI or insurance company under any category for six years, whether continuously or intermittently.
• The candidate should not be engaging in the business of stock broking.
• The candidate should not be a member of Parliament, state legislature, municipal corporation, municipality, or other local bodies — notified area council, city council, panchayat, gram sabha or zila parishad.
• Other conditions are that candidate should not be a partner of a chartered accountant (CA) firm currently engaged as a statutory central auditor of any nationalised bank or State Bank of India; or when the firm is engaged as statutory branch auditor or concurrent auditor of the bank in which nomination is sought.

MCQ 3

1. A complete set of diploid set of chromosomes in a gamete or microorganism, or in each cell of a multicellular organism is called genome
2. the human genome has never been sequenced till date

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• The haploid set of chromosomes in a gamete or microorganism, or in each cell of a multicellular organism.
• The complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism.
• Whole genome sequencing (also known as WGS, full genome sequencing, complete genome sequencing, or entire genome sequencing) is ostensibly the process of determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism’s genome at a single time. This entails sequencing all of an organism’s chromosomal DNA as well as DNA contained in the mitochondria and, for plants, in the chloroplast. In practice, genome sequences that are nearly complete are also called whole genome sequences
• The Human Genome Project (HGP) was an international scientific research project with the goal of determining the sequence of nucleotide base pairs that make up human DNA, and of identifying and mapping all of the genes of the human genome from both a physical and a functional standpoint. It remains the world’s largest collaborative biological project. After the idea was picked up in 1984 by the US government when the planning started, the project formally launched in 1990 and was declared complete on April 14, 2003
• The project was not able to sequence all the DNA found in human cells. It sequenced only euchromatic regions of the genome, which make up 92.1% of the human genome. The other regions, called heterochromatic, are found in centromeres and telomeres, and were not sequenced under the project
• The Department of Biotechology (DBT) plans to scan nearly 20,000 Indian genomes over the next five years, in a two-phase exercise, and develop diagnostic tests that can be used to test for cancer.

1. The first phase involves sequencing the complete genomes of nearly 10,000 Indians from all corners of the country and capture the biological diversity of India.
2. In the next phase, about 10,000 “diseased individuals” would have their genomes sequenced. These vast troves of data sets would be compared using machine learning techniques to identify genes that can predict cancer risk, as well as other diseases that could be significantly influenced by genetic anomalies.

Significance:

1. The data generated would be accessible to researchers anywhere for analysis. This would be through a proposed National Biological Data Centre envisaged in a policy called the ‘Biological Data Storage, Access and Sharing Policy’, which is still in early stages of discussion.
2. As the genetic landscape differs across the world, it is necessary that genetic data is shared in order to derive greater knowledge from information and serve the purpose of enabling better treatment outcomes.
3. The GenomeIndia initiative will pave the way for identifying genes and genetic variations for common diseases, treating Mendelian disorders, enabling the transformation of the Precision Medicine landscape in India, and thus improving the healthcare of the general population in our country.

• Need for genome sequencing:
• Ever since the human genome was first sequenced in 2003, it opened a fresh perspective on the link between disease and the unique genetic make-up of each individual.
• Nearly 10,000 diseases — including cystic fibrosis, thalassemia — are known to be the result of a single gene malfunctioning. While genes may render some insensitive to certain drugs, genome sequencing has shown that cancer too can be understood from the viewpoint of genetics, rather than being seen as a disease of certain organs.
• What are the uses of genome sequencing?
• Genomics is an interdisciplinary field of science focusing on the structure, function, evolution, mapping, and editing of genomes.
• Genomics also involves the sequencing and analysis of genomes through uses of high throughput DNA sequencing.
• Advances in genomics have triggered a revolution in discovery-based research and systems biology to facilitate understanding of even the most complex biological systems such as the brain.

MCQ 4

1. National Population Register (NPR) database is maintained by UIDAI
2. Its not mandatory for all people in India
3. It has biological information for disease database of people of India

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• The National Population Register (NPR) is a database of the identities of all Indian residents.
• The data for the creation of the NPR was collected during the General Census carried out between April and September 2010. The database is maintained by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India. The Indian government is also creating a National Register of Indian Citizens, a subset of the National Population Register
• The goal for NPR is almost the same as for Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), which issues Aadhaar cards. It is to improve implementation of the economic policies of the government and its various programs, in so far as they affect different segments of the population. NPR and UIDAI work closely together to create a database of Indian residents.
• Under the NPR Project, the following activities are undertaken:
• House listing by enumerator.
• Scanning of NPR schedules.
• Storing data in a digital format.
• Biometric enrollment and consolidation.
• Correction and validation of information collected.
• Deduplication by UIDAI and issuance of Aadhaar number.
• Consolidation of data at the Census Commissioner’s office.
• The next round of recording biometric and family-tree details of Indian citizens under the National Population Register (NPR) will be conducted in September 2020.

National Population Register (NPR):

• It is a Register of usual residents of the country.
• It is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
• It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
• Definition: A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
• The NPR database would contain demographic as well as biometric details.
• As per the provisions of the NPR, a resident identity card (RIC) will be issued to individuals over the age of 18. This will be a chip-embedded smart card containing the demographic and biometric attributes of each individual. The UID number will also be printed on the card.

MCQ 5

1. Meghdoot is a New mobile app launched to assist farmers by ISRO
2. The application would be available for all districts in different parts of the country.

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• It is a New mobile app launched to assist farmers.
• The application would be available for 150 districts in different parts of the country.
• It will provide forecast relating to temperature, rainfall, humidity, and wind speed and direction, which play critical roles in agricultural operations and advisories to the farmers on how to take care of their crops and livestock. The information would be updated twice a week on Tuesdays and Fridays.
• The app would provide information in the form of images, maps and pictures to help the farmer to have a clearer picture of what is in store. It has been integrated with WhatsApp and Facebook as well to help farmers share advisories among themselves. It will also be integrated with YouTube in future.
• It has been developed by experts from the India Meteorological Department and Indian Institute of Tropical meteorology and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

MCQ 6

1. India’s deep ocean mission is prepared by ministry of petroleum and natural gas
2. Main aim of the mission is to explore and extract hydrocarbons as natural gas & crude oil

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

 (D) None

• Ministry Of Earth Sciences Plans Rs 8000 Crore ‘Deep Ocean Mission’ To Boost India’s Sea Exploration Capabilities.

What will be mined from the deep ocean?

• One of the main aims of the mission is to explore and extract polymetallic nodules. These are small potato-like rounded accretions composed of minerals such as manganese, nickel, cobalt, copper and iron hydroxide.
• They lie scattered on the Indian Ocean floor at depths of about 6,000 m and the size can vary from a few millimetres to centimetres. These metals can be extracted and used in electronic devices, smartphones, batteries and even for solar panels.
• The International Seabed Authority (ISA), an autonomous international organisation established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, allots the ‘area’ for deep-sea mining.
• India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor ‘ in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration. In 2002, India signed a contract with the ISA and after complete resource analysis of the seabed 50% was surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000 sq km.

 21-August-2017 India’s Exclusive Rights to Explore Polymetallic Nodules from Central Indian Ocean Seabed Basin Extended by Five Years

• India’s exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules from seabed in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) have been extended by five years. These rights are over 75000 sq. km of area in international waters allocated by International Seabed Authority for developmental activities for polymetallic nodules. The estimated polymetallic nodule resource potential is 380 million tonnes, containing 4.7 million tonnes of nickel, 4.29 million tonnes of copper and 0.55 million tonnes of cobalt and 92.59 million tonnes of manganese. This has been approved unanimously in the 23rd session of International Seabed Authority (ISA) concluded on August 18, 2017 at Kingston, Jamaica.
• India is the first country to have received the status of a pioneer investor in 1987 and was allocated an exclusive area in Central Indian Ocean Basin by United Nations (UN) for exploration and utilization of nodules. India is one among the top 8-countries/ contractors and is implementing a long–term programme on exploration and utilization of Polymetallic Nodules through Ministry of Earth Sciences. This includes survey and exploration, environmental studies, technology development in mining and extractive metallurgy, in which significant contributions have been made.
•  While, the extraction of metals from the polymetallic nodules lying at the deep ocean floor is not yet found to be economically viable at this stage, an area of about 7860 square km has been identified in the CIOB for the First Generation Mine Site on the basis of detailed surveys and analysis. Environmental studies for mining of deep-sea polymetallic nodules were also carried out to evaluate the possible impacts of mining on deep-sea environment.
• A Remotely Operable Submersible (ROSUB 6000), capable of operating at 6000 m water depth was also developed and tested successfully at a depth of 5289 m. A remotely operable in-situ soil testing equipment was also developed for obtaining detailed geotechnical properties of the mining area at CIOB and tested successfully at 5462 m water depth.
• A mining system is under development which has been tested for 500m water depth. Metallurgical process routes for extracting copper, nickel and cobalt from polymetallic nodules have been developed and tested in a demonstration pilot plant set up on semi-continuous basis at Hindustan Zinc Limited, Udaipur with a capacity to process 500 kg nodules per day.
• International Seabed Authority (ISA) is a UN body set up to regulate the exploration and exploitation of marine non-living resources of oceans in international waters. India actively contributes to the work of International Seabed Authority. Last year, India was re-elected as a member of Council of ISA. India’s nominees on Legal and Technical Commission and Finance Committee of the ISA were also elected last year.
• Which are the other countries that are in the race to mine the deep sea?
• Apart from the CIOB, polymetallic nodules have been identified from the central Pacific Ocean. It is known as the Clarion-Clipperton Zone.
• China, France, Germany, Japan, South Korea, Russia and also some small islands such as the Cook Islands, Kiribati have joined the race for deep sea mining.
• Most of the countries have tested their technologies in shallow waters and are yet to start deep-sea extraction.

What will be the environmental impact?

• According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), these deep remote locations can be home to unique species that have adapted themselves to conditions such as poor oxygen and sunlight, high pressure and extremely low temperatures.
• Such mining expeditions can make them go extinct even before they are known to science. The deep sea’s biodiversity and ecology remain poorly understood, making it difficult to assess the environmental impact and frame adequate guidelines.
• Environmentalists are also worried about the sediment plumes that will be generated as the suspended particles can rise to the surface harming the filter feeders in the upper ocean layers. Additional concerns have been raised about the noise and light pollution from the mining vehicles and oil spills from the operating vessels.

MCQ 7

1. The strength of Supreme Court is fixed by law enacted Parliament as per Article 124 (1) of Constitution of India.
2. Today the Lok Sabha has passed Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2019 to increase the number of Supreme Court judges from the present 31 to 34(excluding CJI).

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• For this purpose Parliament has enacted Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, which originally provided for maximum of 10 judges (excluding CJI). This number was increased to 13 by Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 1960 and to 17 in 1977.
• However till the end of 1979, the working strength of Supreme Court was restricted to 15 judges (excluding CJI) by cabinet. But the restriction was later withdrawn at request of CJI. In 1986, strength of Supreme Court was increased to 25, excluding CJI. Subsequently, Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2009 further increased strength of Supreme Court judges from 25 to 30 (excluding CJI).

MCQ 8

Arrange north to south on world map

1. Yellow sea
2. Celebs sea
3. Arafura sea
4. Coral sea

(A) 1,2,3,4

(B) 1,2,4,3,

(C) 1,4,2,3,

(D) 4,1,2,3

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