Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC / IAS / 13-07-19 | PDF Downloads

 
MCQ 1

1. The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act
2. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the president of india

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• 10 MLAs from Karnataka may face disqualification for anti-party activities and defying whips. The ball is now in speaker’s court as he has powers to invoke the 10th Schedule of the Constitution, also known as the Anti-defection Act.
• What is the anti-defection law?
• The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
• It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
• The decision on question as to disqualification on ground of defection is referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of such House, and his decision is final.
• The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.

Disqualification:

• If a member of a house belonging to a political party:
• Voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party, or
• Votes, or does not vote in the legislature, contrary to the directions of his political party. However, if the member has taken prior permission, or is condoned by the party within 15 days from such voting or abstention, the member shall not be disqualified.
• If an independent candidate joins a political party after the election.
• If a nominated member joins a party six months after he becomes a member of the legislature.

Exceptions under the law:

• Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.

Decision of the Presiding Officer is subject to judicial review:

• The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review. This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992, thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court. However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.

Advantages of anti-defection law:

• Provides stability to the government by preventing shifts of party allegiance.
• Ensures that candidates remain loyal to the party as well the citizens voting for him.
• Promotes party discipline.
• Facilitates merger of political parties without attracting the provisions of Anti-defection
• Expected to reduce corruption at the political level.
• Provides for punitive measures against a member who defects from one party to another.

Various Recommendations to overcome the challenges posed by the law:

• Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms: Disqualification should be limited to following cases:
• A member voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party
• A member abstains from voting, or votes contrary to the party whip in a motion of vote of confidence or motion of no-confidence. Political parties could issue whips only when the government was in danger. Law Commission (170th Report)
• Provisions which exempt splits and mergers from disqualification to be deleted.
• Pre-poll electoral fronts should be treated as political parties under anti-defection
• Political parties should limit issuance of whips to instances only when the government is in danger.

Election Commission:

• Decisions under the Tenth Schedule should be made by the President/ Governor on the binding advice of the Election Commission.

MCQ 2

1. Chandrayaan-1 failed In its rover’s landing but Chandrayaan-2 will have a soft landing on the moon’s surface
2. According to ISRO, there is a possibility of the presence of water in permanently shadowed areas around south pole.

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• Chandrayaan-2 mission
• India is aiming to be the 4th country to land on the lunar surface after the USA, Russia and China.
• ISRO will launch Chandrayaan-2, its second spacecraft to the moon on July 15, 2019.
• Chandrayaan-1 was designed to just orbit the Moon and make observations, while Chandrayaan-2is created to land on the Moon.
• This mission is aimed at landing a rover near the unexplored South Pole.
• According to ISRO, there is a possibility of the presence of water in permanently shadowed areas around it.
• South Pole region also has craters that are cold traps and contain a fossil record of the early Solar System.
• Chandrayaan 2, has three important components — the Orbiter, the Lander ‘Vikram’, and Rover ‘Pragyan’.
• The Chandrayaan will be tucked into the GSLV Mk-III rocket.
• It is also called as ‘Baahubali’, the country’s heaviest and most powerful rocket to date.
• It is a three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO.
• The vehicle has two solid strapons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.
• This mission will help us to better understand the origin and evolution of the moon.
• Studies of lunar topography, mineralogy, elemental abundance, and signatures of water ice are the prime objectives.
• The orbiter has 8 instruments fitted into it and 7 of them are India’s.
• NASA has one payload onboard called the Laser Retroreflector Array (LRA).
• The ‘Terrain Mapping Camera-2’(TMC-2) will map the lunar surface and help to prepare 3D maps of it.
• The ‘Miniature Synthetic Aperture Radar’(Mini SAR) will also map the surface of water-ice in the South Pole and thickness of the lunar dust on the surface.
• The ‘Dual Frequency Radio Science’(DFRS) will study the density of the electrons in the moon’s ionosphere.
• The orbiter has a high-resolution camera (OHRC) that ensures that the lander makes a safe touchdown on the lunar surface by taking 3D images of the landing site.
• The ‘Solar X-ray Monitor’(XSM) measures the intensity of the solar rays and the outer most part of the atmosphere or its corona.
• CLASS (Chandrayaan 2 Large Area Soft X-ray Spectrometer) measures the light absorbed by the Moon and will check for different metals that are present in its spectrum.
• Thermo-physical property of the lunar surface and seismic activities will also be measured.
• The orbiter will continue to orbit the Moon for a year, at an altitude of 100 kilometres.
• The Rover which is 6-wheeled, AI-powered and the Lander are designed to work for only 14 days (1 lunar day).

MCQ 3

1. Merchant Discount Rate is charged by shopkeepers or business owners on customers during digital payment
2. MDR is recently made zero for companies with over Rs 50 cr turnover accepting payments digitally

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• Merchant Discount Rate (MDR)
• It is a fee charged by a bank to a merchant for payment processing services from customers on debit and credit card transactions.
• It is also referred to as the ‘Transaction Discount Rate’ or TDR.
• To give a push to digital payments adoption, government has proposed no charge or merchant discount rate for companies with over Rs 50 cr turnover accepting payments digitally
• The MDR will instead be borne by supporting banks and the Reserve Bank of India.
• Necessary amendments are being made in the Income Tax Act and the Payments and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 to give effect to these provisions.
• Contrary to public perception, the MDR has not been made zero.
• The FM’s decision has just shifted its incidence on to the RBI and banks.
• So many payments providers apprehend that the banks will find a way of passing on the costs to them.
• In turn, this will negatively impact the health of a sector that needs nurturing.

MCQ 4

1. Great Indian bustard is found in western ghats only
2. The Environment Ministry initiated a central sector scheme to save the ‘Great Indian bustard’.

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
 (D) None

• Great Indian bustard
• The Environment Ministry initiated a project to save the ‘Great Indian bustard’.
• With just 130 great Indian bustards left in the country, this project focuses on their conservation and protection.
• It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
• Through ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats’, government provides funds to states & Union Territories under the component ‘Species Recovery Programme’.
• The fund is for conservation and protection of 21 critically endangered species, including the Great Indian Bustard.
• The ministry has also initiated ‘Habitat Improvement and Conservation Breeding of Great Indian Bustard’ – An Integrated Approach.
• The important objective of this is to, build up captive population of great Indian bustard and to release the chicks in the wild for increasing the population.
• Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra are the important range states involved in this programme.
• Currently, there are two centres for breeding and hatching, in Jaisalmer and in Kota, both in Rajasthan.
• Key Facts about Great Indian bustard,
• Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972
• Appendix I of CITES
• Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List
• Habitat – Found in the Indian-subcontinent
• Threats –
• Agriculture & aquaculture
• Energy production & mining
• Transportation & service corridors
• Human intrusions & disturbance
• Invasive and other problematic species and diseases
• However, the government does not recognise noise pollution as a cause of danger to the bird.

MCQ 5
LaQshya initiative is related to

1. Space Research
2. GST collection
3. Lowering States’ Fiscal deficit
4. None

• LaQshya
• “LaQshya” (Labour room Quality improvement Initiative) is to improve quality of care in labour room and maternity operation theatres in public health facilities.
• It’s under the ‘Ministry of Health and Family Welfare’.
• It aims to give qualitative care to the pregnant mother in the Labour Room to minimize the risks associated with childbirth.
• Objectives-
• To reduce maternal and newborn mortality & morbidity due to hemorrhage, retained placenta, preterm, obstructed labour, newborn sepsis, etc.
• To improve Quality of care during the delivery and immediate post-partum care, stabilization of complications and ensure timely referrals, and enable an effective two-way follow-up system.
• To enhance satisfaction of beneficiaries visiting the health facilities and provide Respectful Maternity Care (RMC) to all pregnant women attending the public health facilities.
• The healthcare facilities identified for the implementation of LaQshya program are –
• Government medical college hospitals.
• District Hospitals & equivalent health facilities.
• Designated FRUs and high case load CHCs with over 100 deliveries/month ( 60 in hills and desert areas)
• It also plans to conduct quality certification of labour rooms and provide facilities to achieve the outlined targets.

MCQ 6

1. A nominated MP has introduced a private member’s BillPopulation Regulation Bill, 2019- in the Rajya Sabha
2. There is a provision of 10 years imprisonment for couples giving birth to more than 2 kids

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• A nominated MP has introduced a private member’s Bill- Population Regulation Bill, 2019- in the Rajya Sabha, seeking to enforce a two-child norm by giving incentives for those adopting the small family practice and penalties for those contravening it.
• Highlights of the Bill:
• It suggests that people with more than two living children should be “disqualified” from being chosen as an MP, MLA or a member of any body of the local self government after the commencement of the Act.
• Similarly, it suggests that government employees should give an undertaking that she or he will not procreate more than two children.
• It says those government employees who have more than two children on or before the commencement of the Act should be exempted.
• Other penalties include reduction in subsidies on loans and interest rates on savings instruments, reduction in benefits under the public distribution system, and higher than normal interest rates for availing loans from banks and financial institutions.
• The provisions of the Bill also list out several benefits for Central and public sector enterprise employees who adopt the two-child norm “by undergoing sterilization operation himself or of the spouse”.
• Criticisms related to two- child policy:
• India is a country with a booming technology industry, one that relies on young people. There is fear that, by restricting the number of children that can be born, there will not be enough educated young people in the next generation to carry on India’s technological revolution.
• Critics also argue that the population growth of India will slow down naturally as the country grows richer and becomes more educated.
• There are already well-documented problems with China’s one-child policy, namely the gender imbalance resulting from a strong preference for boys and millions of undocumented children who were born to parents that already had their one child. These problems risk being replicated in India with the implementation of their two-child policy.
• By interfering with the birth rate, India faces a future with severe negative population growth, a serious problem that most developed countries are trying to reverse. With negative population growth, the number of old people receiving social services is larger than the young tax base that is paying for the social services. In this case, taxes must be increased and young people risk contributing way more than they will receive in the future.
• The law related may also be anti-women. Human rights activists argue that, not only does the law discriminate against women right from birth (through abortion or infanticide of female fetuses and babies), but divorce and familial abandonment are at risk of increasing if a man with a large family wants to run for political office. In addition, women in India are, by and large, uneducated and illiterate and, as such, are often unaware of the two-child policy.
• A legal restriction to two children could force couples to go for sex-selective abortions as there are only two ‘attempts’. A significant proportion of such women, especially those from lower socio-economic strata, would be forced to go for unsafe abortions because of issues of access and affordability. Besides being inhumane, this is bound to create gender imbalances.
• Are urgent and aggressive steps to control population required for India?
• It is indeed a fact that population of India is growing and will continue to grow for the next couple of decades. This is because, as compared to the past, there is a higher proportion of people in the marriageable age group who will produce children, and people are now living longer.
• However, the fertility rates are also declining. The average number of children that a woman is expected to bear in her lifetime is called the total fertility rate (TFR). A TFR of about 2.1 is considered as replacement-level fertility – if achieved, it will lead the population to stabilise in the long run.
• As per National Family Health Survey data, the country-level TFR in India is 2.23, which is not hugely above the desired level of 2.1.
• Twenty states/UTs have achieved the replacement-level TFR, another five have got it below 2.2, with the remaining 11 states (including Bihar, UP, MP, Rajasthan, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh) having a higher rate. Though these 11 states/UTs accounts for 42% of country’s population, they are already showing a fall in their TFRs.

MCQ 7
Centre has proposed a Model Tenancy Law to regulate renting of premises

1. Both landlord and tenant will have to submit a copy of rent agreement to the district Rent Authority
2. It advocates appointing district collector as rent authority and heavy penalty on tenants for overstaying.

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• Centre has proposed a Model Tenancy Law to regulate renting of premises.

Highlights of the draft:

• It mandates the landowner to give a notice in writing three months before revising rent.
• It advocates appointing district collector as rent authority and heavy penalty on tenants for overstaying.
• According to it, tenants overstaying will have to pay double the rent for two times and four times thereafter.
• The security deposit to be paid by the tenant in advance will be a maximum of two months’ rent.
• Both landlord and tenant will have to submit a copy of rent agreement to the district Rent Authority which will also have the power to revise or fix rent following a request either by landlord or tenant.
• States will be free to adopt the law owing to land being state subject.
• States will be required to constitute rent courts and rent tribunal.
•  If the landowner refuses to carry out the required repairs, the tenant can get the work done and deduct the same from periodic rent.
• A landowner cannot enter the rented premises without 24-hour prior notice to carry out repairs or replacement.
• Landowner cannot cut power and water supply in case of a dispute with the tenant.
• Rent Authority may direct for compensation on the person responsible for cutting off or withholding the essential supply.
• The Rent Authority may levy a penalty be paid to the landowner or tenant if it finds that the application was made frivolously or vexatiously.

Significance:

• It is an important piece of legislation that promises to ease the burden on civil courts, unlock rental properties stuck in legal disputes, and prevent future tangles by balancing the interests of tenants and landlords.

Need for a law in this regard:

• Young, educated job seekers migrating to large metropolises often complain of onerous tenancy conditions and obscene sums of money as security deposits that they are asked to fork out to lease accommodation. In some cities, tenants are asked to pay security deposits amounting to 11 months of rent. Also, some house owners routinely breach tenants’ right to privacy by visiting the premises unannounced for sundry repair works. Whimsical rent raises are another problem for tenants, many of whom complain of being squeezed as “captive customers“.
• Besides, Tenants are often accused of “squatting” on the rented premises, or trying to grab the property.

MCQ 8

1. GAFA tax was recently introduced in budget 2019-20
2. It is related to FDI rules in e commerce business

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

• The tax would be applied only to companies with global revenues in excess of €500 million and revenue of at least €25 million from UK activities

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