Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC / IAS / 13-08-19 | Free PDF

 

MCQ 1

According to ISFR

1. Top state with highest Forest cover in terms of percentage geographical area is Mizoram(86.27%)
2. The lowest forest and tree cover is in Punjab with 6.87 %.

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D)None

• India State of Forest Report (ISFR)
• Recently this data was shared in Parliament by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• According to the data, a quarter of India’s geographical area (24.49 %) is under forest and tree cover.
• Northeast crowds the list of states with most dense tree, forest cover.
• Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Meghalaya are among the top 6 states with highest forest and tree cover.
• The lowest forest and tree cover is in Haryana at 6.79 % of its geographical area. Punjab follows with 6.87 %.

• Top 3 States with maximum Forest cover (in terms of area):
• Madhya Pradesh (77,414 sq km)
• Arunachal Pradesh (66,964 sq km) and
• Chhattisgarh (55,547 sq).

 Top states with highest Forest cover in terms of percentage geographical area:

1. Lakshadweep with (90.33%),
2. Mizoram (86.27%) and
3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands (81.73%)

• Rajasthan’s forest and tree cover is over 7.26% of its geographical area while Madhya Pradesh’s is 27.73 %.

Top 5 States with maximum increase in forest cover,

1. Andhra Pradesh (2141 sq km),
2. Karnataka (1101 sq km)
3. Kerala (1043 sq km),
4. Odisha (885 sq kms) and
5. Telangana (565 sq kms)

• Goa and Kerala are two other states with more than 50 per cent of their geographical area under forest and tree cover.
• Forest Survey of India (FSI) has been assessing the forest and tree resources of our country on a biennial basis since 1987.
• The results of the assessment are published in its biennial report titled “India State of Forest Report (ISFR)”.

MCQ 2

A new report from the European union’s Copernicus climate change programme says July 2019 was close to _____°C above the pre-industrial level.

(A)1°

(B)1.5°

(C)1.2°

(D)2°

July 2019 was the hottest ever month

• July 2019 was the hottest ever month on record, announced by World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
• It was based on a new report from the European Union’s Copernicus Climate Change Programme.
• July 2019 was close to 1.2°C above the pre-industrial level and 2019 has already logged several record-hot months.
• The month was characterized by relentless heat waves around the world.
• On July, numerous European countries including Belgium, Germany and the Netherlands experienced new national heat records with temperatures in excess of 104 degrees Fahrenheit.

• This year brought several severe heat waves to Europe, India, and Pakistan.
• The previous hottest month, July 2016, occurred during one of the strongest El Niños ever.
• The extraordinary heat was accompanied by dramatic ice melt in Greenland, in the Arctic and on European glaciers.
• The ice sheets of Greenland alone lost a staggering 217 billion tons of ice last month.
• It is enough to raise global average sea levels by 0.02 inches (0.5 millimeters).
• Meanwhile, unprecedented wildfires scorched so much of the Arctic, releasing about 100 megatons of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
• The planet was already warmed up by about 1.8 F (1 C) above preindustrial levels and are poised to hit the 2.7-degree threshold as soon as 2030.

 MCQ 3

1. Krishna is the 5th largest river in India
2. It rises near trimbak plateau near Nasik
3. Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Bhima, Tungabhadra and bhavani are main tributaries

Choose correct

(A) 1 & 2

(B) 2 & 3

(C) All

 (D) None

Krishna river

• Krishna River or Krishnaveni is one of the longest rivers in Peninsular India.
• It is the fourth largest river in India after the Ganga, Godavari and the Narmadha.
• It rises at Mahabaleswar in district Satara, Maharashtra and flows through Maharastra, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
• The delta of this river is one of the most fertile regions in India.
• It was the home to ancient Satavahana and Ikshvaku Sun Dynasty kings.
• Vijayawada is the largest city on the River Krishna.
• The principal tributaries joining Krishna are the Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Bhima, Tungabhadra and Musi River.
• ‘Polavaram’ right bank canal connects Godavari River to the Krishna river.
• ‘Agumbe’ which receives second highest rainfall (7,620 mm mean annual) in India, is located in the Krishna river basin.
• ‘Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary’ which harbors vast tracts of pristine mangrove forests is located here.
• The basin has a rich mineral deposits such as oil &gas, coal, iron, limestone, dolomite, gold, granite, laterite, uranium.

MCQ 4

Several political groups active during the Indian Independence Movement were opposed to the Quit India Movement. These included

1. Muslim League
2. Hindu Mahasabha
3. Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh
4. Communist party of India
5. Princely states

(A) 1 & 5

(B) 1,4,5

(C) All

(D) 1,2,3

• Several political groups active during the Indian Independence Movement were opposed to the Quit India Movement. These included the Muslim League, the Hindu Mahasabha, the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh the Communist party of India and princely states.
• Hindu nationalist parties like the Hindu Mahasabha openly opposed the call for the Quit India Movement and boycotted it officially. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, the president of the Hindu Mahasabha at that time, even went to the extent of writing a letter titled “Stick to your Posts”, in which he instructed Hindu Sabhaites who happened to be “members of municipalities, local bodies, legislatures or those serving in the army… to stick to their posts” across the country, and not to join the Quit India Movement at any cost.But later after requests and persuasions and realizing the importance of the bigger role of Indian independence he chose to join the Indian independence movement.

• Following the Hindu Mahasabha’s official decision to boycott the Quit India movement, Syama Prasad Mukherjee, leader of the Hindu Mahasabha in Bengal, (which was a part of the ruling coalition in Bengal led by Krishak Praja Party of Fazlul Haq), wrote a letter to the British Government as to how they should respond, if the Congress gave a call to the British rulers to quit India. In this letter, dated 26 July 1942 he wrote: “Let me now refer to the situation that may be created in the province as a result of any widespread movement launched by the Congress. Anybody, who during the war, plans to stir up mass feeling, resulting internal disturbances or insecurity, must be resisted by any Government that may function for the time being”. In this way he managed to gain insights of the british government and effectively give information of the independence leaders.
• Mukherjee reiterated that the Fazlul Haq led Bengal Government, along with its alliance partner Hindu Mahasabha, would make every possible effort to defeat the Quit India Movement in the province of Bengal and made a concrete proposal as regards this:
•  “The question is how to combat this movement (Quit India) in Bengal? The administration of the province should be carried on in such a manner that in spite of the best efforts of the Congress, this movement will fail to take root in the province. It should be possible for us, especially responsible Ministers, to be able to tell the public that the freedom for which the Congress has started the movement, already belongs to the representatives of the people. In some spheres it might be limited during the emergency. Indian have to trust the British, not for the sake for Britain, not for any advantage that the British might gain, but for the maintenance of the defense and freedom of the province itself. You, as Governor, will function as the constitutional head of the province and will be guided entirely on the advice of your Minister.
• Even the Indian historian R.C. Majumdar noted this fact and states:
•  “Shyam Prasad ended the letter with a discussion of the mass movement organized by the Congress. He expressed the apprehension that the movement would create internal disorder and will endanger internal security during the war by exciting popular feeling and he opined that any government in power has to suppress it, but that according to him could not be done only by persecution…. In that letter he mentioned item wise the steps to be taken for dealing with the situation ….

Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh

• Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) had kept aloof from the Congress-led anti-British Indian independence movement since its founding by K.B. Hedgewar in 1925. In 1942, under M.S. Golwalkar, it refused to join in the Quit India Movement.
• The Bombay government appreciated the RSS position by noting that, “the Sangh has scrupulously kept itself within the law, and in particular, has refrained from taking part in the disturbances that broke out in August 1942″.”.
• The British Government also asserted that at Sangh meetings organized during the times of anti-British movements started and fought by the Indian National Congress, “speakers urged the Sangh members to keep aloof from the congress movement and these instructions were generally observed”. The RSS head (sarsanghchalak) during that time, M.S. Golwalkar later stated that the RSS did not support the Quit India Movement. Such a non-committal attitude during the Indian freedom movement also led to the Sangh being viewed with distrust and anger, both by the general Indian public, as well as certain members of the organization itself.
•  In Golwalkar’s words, “In 1942 also, there was a strong sentiment in the hearts of many. At that time too, the routine work of the Sangh continued. Sangh decided not to do anything directly. ‘Sangh is the organization of inactive people, their talks have no substance’ was the opinion uttered not only by outsiders but also our own swayamsevaks.’ ”The British Government stated that the RSS was not at all supporting any civil disobedience against them, and as such their other political activities could be overlooked.
• The Home Department was thereby of the opinion that the RSS did not constitute a menace to law and order in British India. The Bombay government reported that the RSS had not, in any way, infringed upon government orders and had always shown a willingness to comply with the law. The same Bombay Government report further noted that in December 1940, orders had been issued to the provincial RSS leaders to desist from any activities that the British Government considered objectionable, and the RSS, in turn, had assured the British authorities that “it had no intentions of offending against the orders of the Government”

MCQ 5

1. The government has announced an outlay of ₹100,000 crore for FAME 2 to boost the number of electric vehicles in India
2. Except 2 wheelers all other vehicles will be incentivized

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

 (D) None

• FAME India is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
• Main thrust of FAME is to encourage electric vehicles by providing subsidies.
• FAME focuses on 4 areas i.e. Technology development, Demand Creation, Pilot Projects and Charging Infrastructure.

Recently government has sanctioned 5,595 electric buses under Fame India Phase-II.

• How FAME 2 scheme aims to promote the use of electric vehicles in India
• The government has announced an outlay of ₹10,000 crore for FAME 2 to boost the number of electric vehicles in India
• ₹1,000 crore has been earmarked for setting up charging stations for electric vehicles in India
• The government has announced an outlay of₹10,000 crore for Phase 2 of the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles, or FAME 2 scheme, to boost electric mobility and increase the number of electric vehicles in commercial fleets.

What are the salient features of FAME 2 scheme?

• The outlay of ₹10,000 crore has been made for three years till 2022 for FAME 2 scheme. The centre has sanctioned ₹8,596 crore for incentives, of which ₹1,000 crore has been earmarked for setting up charging stations for electric vehicles in India. The government will offer the incentives for electric buses, three-wheelers and four-wheelers to be used for commercial purposes. Plug-in hybrid vehicles and those with a sizeable lithium-ion battery and electric motor will also be included in the scheme and fiscal support offered depending on the size of the battery.
• How will FAME 2 scheme help improve charging infrastructure?
• The centre will invest in setting up charging stations, with the active participation of public sector units and private players. It has also been proposed to provide one slow-charging unit for every electric bus and one fast-charging station for 10 electric buses. Projects for charging infrastructure will include those needed to extend electrification for running vehicles such as pantograph charging and flash charging, says a notification by the heavy industries ministry. FAME 2 will also encourage interlinking of renewable energy sources with charging infrastructure.
• What is the target?
• The centre may incentivize the purchase of 7,090 electric buses with an outlay of ₹3,545 crore, 20,000 hybrids with ₹26 crore, 35,000 four-wheelers with ₹525 crore and 500,000 three-wheelers with ₹2,500 crore.
• How will the incentives be offered?
• The centre plans to roll out an incentive of ₹10,000 per kilowatt (kW) for two-, three- and four-wheelers, based on the size of their batteries. To encourage state transport units (STUs) to buy more electric buses, ₹20,000 per kW will be offered as incentive. The incentives may further be subject to bidding by original equipment manufacturers. A committee will review the incentives after a certain period. Electric buses will be offered incentives on the basis of the operational expenditure model adopted by STUs.
• What steps are being taken to make electric vehicles more affordable?
• FAME 2 will offer incentives to manufacturers, who invest in developing electric vehicles and its components, including lithium-ion batteries and electric motors. The centre has asked states to frame their EV policy and provide additional fiscal and non-fiscal incentives to manufacturers and buyers. Only buses priced up to ₹2 crore, strong and plug-in hybrids under ₹15 lakh, three-wheelers under ₹5 lakh and two-wheelers under₹1.5 lakh will be eligible for incentives.

MCQ 6

Recently a state-wise data of SRB was tabled by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in Parliament

1. It has improved from 914 to 949 between 2005-06 and 2015-16, National Family Health Surveys (NFHS).
2. The highest improvement was in Haryana at 126 points

Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• It has improved from 914 to 919 between 2005-06 and 2015-16, National Family Health Surveys (NFHS).
• The highest improvement was in Punjab at 126 points, but its SRB remained one of the lowest among the states at 860 in NFHS-4.
• The sharpest decline was in Sikkim, where the SRB dropped to 809, the lowest among all states in 2015-16.
• The 2nd highest improvement in SRB was in Kerala, by 122 points from 925 in 2005-06.
• Its 1,047 in 2015-16 was the highest SRB among all states.
• SRB has been falling in states like Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Madhya Pradesh.
• In North Eastern states such as Sikkim, Assam the sex ratio at birth has fallen dramatically over 10 years.

 MCQ 7

Recently adopted Shillong Declaration was regarding

1. Child nutrition
2. Labour reforms
3. E-Governance
4. Women empowerment

• 22nd National Conference on e-Governance adopts ‘Shillong Declaration’ with focus on Northeast.
• The declaration has outlined the future trajectory that would be taken in terms of e-governance with a focus on improving connectivity in Northeast.

Background:

• The Conference on e-Governance was organised by the Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions and Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology in collaboration with the Meghalaya Government.
•  The conference was an attempt to streamline e-governance services for effective policy implementation while helping to bridge the technological divide.

The 10-point declaration includes:

1. The central government and state governments would collaborate to improve the citizens’ experience with government services.
2. In order to do so, they would promote the timely implementation of India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA).
3. They would also implement a single sign-on for interoperability and integration among e-Government applications throughout the country.
4. It also resolved to consolidate the plethora of successful state-level e-Governance projects and domain-based projects with a focus to replicate them as common application software with configurable features.
5. The declaration also stressed the need to ensure improvement in ease of living and ease of doing business by making a big shift in the role of government from Service Provider to Service Enabler.
6. It also stressed on the need to take steps to further improve connectivity in the Northeast.
7. Issues and challenges of telecommunication connectivity at the grassroots and formulate and implement a comprehensive telecom development plan were also addressed in the declaration.
8. It was also resolved to improve the quality of delivery of e-Services in the Northeast to fulfil the vision of improved citizen experience.
9. It was also resolved to develop India as a global cloud hub and facilitate the development of Government applications and databases on Cloud by default.
10. To adopt emerging technologies for finding e-Governance solutions and to promote the Digital India Projects with focus on Smart Cities and Smart Villages through Startups and Smart Entrepreneurship were also resolved in the declaration.

MCQ 8

1. CITES is legally Non-binding on state parties to the convention
2. It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
3. It is also called Washington Consensus

Choose correct

(A) 1 & 2

(B) 2 only

(C) 2 & 3

(D) All

• India has submitted proposals regarding changes to the listing of various wildlife species in the CITES secretariat meeting, scheduled later this month in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The proposals submitted are regarding changes in the listing of the smooth-coated otter, small-clawed otter, Indian star tortoise, Tokay gecko, wedgefish and Indian rosewood.
• The country seeks to boost the protection of all the five animal species as they are facing a high risk of international trade.
• About Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES):
• It is an International agreement to regulate worldwide commercial trade in wild animal and plant species.
• It restricts trade in items made from such plants and animals, such as food, clothing, medicine, and souvenirs.
• It was signed on March 3, 1973 (Hence world wildlife day is celebrated on march 3).
• It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• Secretariat — Geneva (Switzerland).
• CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
• It classifies plants and animals according to three categories, or appendices, based on how threatened. They are.
• Appendix I: It lists species that are in danger of extinction. It prohibits commercial trade of these plants and animals except in extraordinary situations for scientific or educational reasons.
• Appendix II species: They are those that are not threatened with extinction but that might suffer a serious decline in number if trade is not restricted. Their trade is regulated by permit.
• Appendix III species: They are protected in at least one country that is a CITES member states and that has petitioned others for help in controlling international trade in that species.

 

 

 

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