Daily Current Affairs MCQ / UPSC / IAS / 28-06-19

Table of Contents

MCQ 1
In the election to which of the following a person can contest from two constituencies?

Lok Sabha
Rajya Sabha
State Legislative Assembly
State Legislative Council

Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

All are correct.
Section 33(7) of Representation of People’s act 1951 states that a person can contest a general election or a group of by-elections or biennial elections from a maximum of two constituencies.

MCQ 2
With regard to Chief Information Commissioner, consider the following statements:

His appointment and removal is done by the President.
He is not eligible for reappointment.
His salary, allowances and other service conditions are similar to those of an Election Commissioner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct:
The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.
They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
The President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner from the office under the following circumstances :
(a) if he is adjudged an insolvent; or
(b) if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the President) involves a moral turpitude; or
(c) if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office;
(d) if he is (in the opinion of the President) unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or body; or
(e) if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions. In addition to these, the President can also remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
Statement 3 is not correct:
The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner and that of the Information Commissioner are similar to those of an Election Commissioner. But, they cannot be varied to his disadvantage during service.

MCQ 3
Consider the following statements regarding difference between Article 323 A and 323 B:

Tribunals under Article 323A can be established by both parliament and state legislature
Tribunals under Article 323B can only be established by parliament.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be created.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Tribunals under article 323A can only be established by parliament
While tribunals under article 323B can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under article 323 a whereas in 323 b hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
So statement 3 is correct.
323A. Administrative tribunals
323B. Tribunals for other matters.
323A. Administative tribunals:-

Parliament may, by law, provide for the adjudication or trial by administrative tribunals of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of any State or of any local or other authority within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India or of any corporation owned or controlled by the Government.
A law made under clause (1) may-

(a) provide for the establishment of an administrative tribunal for the Union and a separate administrative tribunal for each State or for two or more States;
(b) specify the jurisdiction, powers (including the power to punish for contempt) and authority which may be exercised by each of the said tribunals;
(c) provide for the procedure (including provisions as to limitation and rules of evidence) to be followed by the said tribunals;
(d) exclude the jurisdiction of all courts, except the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under article 136, with respect to the disputes or complaints referred to in clause (1);
(e) provide for the transfer to each such administrative tribunal of any cases pending before any court or other authority immediately before the establishment of such tribunal as would have been within the jurisdiction of such tribunal if the causes of action on which such suits or proceedings are based had arisen after such establishment;
(f) repeal or amend any order made by the President under clause (3) of article 371D;
(g) contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions (including provisions as to fees) as Parliament may deem necessary for the effective functioning of, and for the speedy disposal of cases by, and the enforcement of the orders of, such tribunals.

The provisions of this article shall have effect notwithstanding anything in any other provision of this Constitution or in any other law for the time being in force.

MCQ 4
Which of the following constitute electoral offences under the Representation of the People Act, 1951?

Publication of the results of exit polls during the elections
Promoting enmity on grounds of language
Publication of opinion polls during the entire duration of application of model code of conduct.
Booth capturing Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
MCQ 5
About DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill

Only in criminal matters identity can be checked through DNA data
The Bill establishes a DNA Regulatory Board to accredit the DNA laboratories that analyze DNA samples to establish the identity of an individual.

Choose correct
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D) None

Cabinet has cleared the DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill once again, paving the way for its reintroduction in Parliament. The Bill had been passed by Lok Sabha in January this year, but could not get the approval of Rajya Sabha. As a result, it lapsed once the tenure of the previous Lok Sabha expired last month.
Introduced Lok Sabha Aug 09, 2018
Passed Lok Sabha Jan 08, 2019
The utility of DNA based technologies for solving crimes, and to identify missing persons, is well recognized across the world. Therefore, the new bill aims to expand the application of DNA-based forensic technologies to support and strengthen the justice delivery system of the country.
Highlights of the Bill
The Bill regulates the use of DNA technology for establishing the identity of persons in respect of matters listed in a Schedule. These include criminal matters (such as offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860), and civil matters such as parentage disputes, emigration or immigration, and transplantation of human organs.
The Bill establishes a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks. Every Data Bank will maintain the following indices: (i) crime scene index, (ii) suspects’ or undertrials’ index, (iii) offenders’ index, (iv) missing persons’ index, and (v) unknown deceased persons’ index.
The Bill establishes a DNA Regulatory Board. Every DNA laboratory that analyses a DNA sample to establish the identity of an individual, has to be accredited by the Board.
Written consent by individuals is required to collect DNA samples from them. Consent is not required for offences with punishment of more than seven years of imprisonment or death.
The Bill provides for the removal of DNA profiles of suspects on filing of a police report or court order, and of undertrials on the basis of a court order. Profiles in the crime scene and missing persons’ index will be removed on a written request.
Key Issues and Analysis
The Schedule lists civil matters where DNA profiling can be used. This includes “issues relating to establishment of individual identity.” DNA testing carried out in medical or research laboratories can be used to identify an individual. It is unclear if the Bill intends to regulate such laboratories.
The Bill requires consent of the individual when DNA profiling is used in criminal investigations and identifying missing persons. However, consent requirements have not been specified in case of DNA profiling for civil matters.
DNA laboratories are required to share DNA data with the Data Banks. It is unclear whether DNA profiles for civil matters will also be stored in the Data Banks. Storage of these profiles in the Data Banks may violate the right to privacy.
DNA laboratories prepare DNA profiles and then share them with DNA Data Banks. The Bill specifies the process by which DNA profiles may be removed from the Data Banks. However, the Bill does not require DNA laboratories to remove DNA profiles. It may be argued that such provisions be included in the Bill and not left to regulations.

Context

The Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) is a set of instructions found in a cell. These instructions are used for the growth and development of an organism. The DNA of a person is unique, and variation in the sequence of DNA can be used to match individuals and identify them. DNA technology, therefore allows for accurate establishment of an individual’s identity.
DNA-based technology can be used to aid criminal investigations. For example, the identity of a criminal offender may be determined by matching DNA found at the crime scene with the DNA of a suspect.
In addition, DNA-based technology helps in identification of victims in the event of terrorist attacks or natural disasters such as earthquakes. For example, DNA technology has been used to identify victims of terrorist attacks on the World Trade Centre in 2001, and disasters such as the Asian tsunami in 2004
Further, DNA profiling can be used in civil matters, such as parentage related disputes.
Currently, the use of DNA technology for identification of individuals is not regulated. In the past, several expert groups including the Law Commission, have looked at the use and regulation of DNA technology.
The Commission submitted its report as well as a draft Bill in July 2017. In this context, the DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2018 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 9, 2018. The Bill regulates the use of DNA technology for the purpose of identification of persons in criminal and civil matters.
Key Features
Use of DNA Data: The Bill regulates DNA testing for identification of persons, in respect of matters listed in the Schedule. This includes offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860, as well as offences under other laws such as the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, and the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
The Schedule also allows for DNA testing in certain civil matters. This includes matters such as parentage disputes, issues related to pedigree, immigration or emigration, assisted reproductive technologies, transplantation of human organs, and for the establishment of individual identity.
DNA Regulatory Board
The Bill provides for a DNA Regulatory Board, which will supervise DNA Data Banks and DNA laboratories. The Secretary in the Department of Biotechnology, will be the ex-officio Chairperson of the Board.
The Board will comprise an additional 12 members including: (i) experts in the field of biological sciences, (ii) Director General of the National Investigation Agency, (iii) Directors of the Central Bureau of Investigation, Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics, Central Forensic Science Laboratory, and (iv) member of the National Human Rights Commission.
The functions of the Board include: (i) supervising DNA laboratories and DNA Data Banks, including quality control, (ii) granting accreditation to DNA laboratories, and (iii) developing modules for training manpower to deal with DNA related matters. Further, the Board will make recommendations to the central government on privacy protection in relation to the use and analysis of DNA samples.
The Board is required to ensure that all information relating to DNA profiles with Data Banks, DNA laboratories, and other persons are kept confidential. DNA data may only be used for the identification of persons.
Prone to misuse: Information from DNA samples can reveal not just how a person looks, or what their eye colour or skin colour is, but also more intrusive information like their allergies, or susceptibility to diseases. As a result, there is a greater risk of information from DNA analysis getting misused.

MCQ 6
Features of Space activities bill 2017, choose correct

the Space Activities Bill, 2017 will allow Non commercial use of space.
participation of non-governmental/private sector agencies in space activities in India will be barred

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both
(D)None

Features of Space activities bill 2017:
It is a proposed Bill to promote and regulate the space activities of India.
The new Bill encourages the participation of non-governmental/private sector agencies in space activities in India under the guidance and authorization of the government through the Department of Space.
The provisions of this Act shall apply to every citizen of India and to all sectors engaged in any space activity in India or outside India.
A non-transferable licence shall be provided by the Central Government to any person carrying out commercial space activity.
The Central Government will formulate the appropriate mechanism for licensing, eligibility criteria, and fees for licence.
The government will maintain a register of all space objects (any object launched or intended to be launched around the earth) and develop more space activity plans for the country.
It will provide professional and technical support for commercial space activity and regulate the procedures for conduct and operation of space activity.
It will ensure safety requirements and supervise the conduct of every space activity of India and investigate any incident or accident in connection with the operation of a space activity.
It will share details about the pricing of products created by space activity and technology with any person or any agency in a prescribed manner.
If any person undertakes any commercial space activity without authorization they shall be punished with imprisonment up to 3 years or fined more than ₹1 crore or both.
There is a need for national space legislation for supporting the overall growth of the space activities in India. This would encourage enhanced participation of non-governmental/private sector agencies in space activities in India, in compliance with international treaty obligations, which is becoming very relevant today.

MCQ 7

Many of methane-producing microbes live in the digestive systems of animals, especially cows.
methane cannot be produced by abiotic processes 3. Methane can be a biomarker

Choose correct about methane (CH4)
(A) 1 & 2
(B) 1 & 3
(C) 2 & 3
(D) ALL

NASA’s Curiosity rover recently discovered high amounts of methane in the air on Mars, leading to excitement whether this was an indication of life on the Red Planet, or beneath its surface. However, later it was confirmed that the methane had fallen back to usual levels.
High amounts of methane were a transient methane plume, which has been observed in the past.
Curiosity unfortunately doesn’t have the instruments to determine whether the source of methane is biological or geological. Further, scientists have yet to figure out a pattern for Martian’s transient plumes.
The Sample Analysis at Mars (SAM) tunable laser spectrometer onboard Curiosity last week detected surprisingly high levels of the gas methane at Gale Crater: about 21 parts per billion units by volume (ppbv), the largest amount of methane the rover has ever found.
On Earth, methane (CH4) is a naturally occurring gas. Most of the methane on Earth is produced in biological processes — some of it by microbes, and some occurring as underground natural gas that had been formed by earlier generations of microbial life.
Many of these methane-producing microbes live in the digestive systems of animals, especially cows.
However, methane can also be produced by abiotic processes (those that do not involve living organisms).
It has been found to occur in formations such as rocks, springs and aquifers, and studies have concluded that it was formed there by chemical reactions between carbon and hydrogen atoms at low temperature.
Once it is released into the atmospheres of either Earth or Mars, methane is relatively short-lived.
Methane concentrations on Earth is over 1,800 parts per million.