Most Important GS Questions for UP and Bihar Judiciary Set 9 – Judiciary Exam – Free PDF

 

Q1. Who among the following is the chairman of the Zonal councils?

1. Prime minister
2. Home Minister
3. Chief Minister
4. Governor

Ans.  – 2

• Explanation – Part-II of the States Reorganization Act, 1956, Five Zonal Councils were established under The present constitution of these Zonal Councils is as follows:-

1. The Northern Zonal Council,
2. Central Zonal Council,
3. Eastern Zonal Council,
4. Western Zonal Council, And
5. Southern Zonal Council,

The North-Eastern States namely

• (i) Assam
• (ii) Arunachal Pradesh
• (iii) Manipur
• (iv) Tripura
• (v) Mizoram
• (vi) Meghalaya and
• (vii) Nagaland have not been included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are covered under the North East Council Act. The Chairman of each Zonal Council is the Home Minister.

Q2. By which constitutional amendment was the legislature formed in Delhi?

1. 61 Constitutional Amendments
2. 69th Constitutional Amendments
3. 89th Constitutional Amendments
4. 91 Constitutional Amendment

Ans.  2

• Explanation: Delhi State Assembly was constituted on 17 March 1952 under the Government of Part C States Act, 1951. But this experiment was short-lived and the popular set-up was abolished on 1 October 1956. Subsequently in September 1966, it was replaced by a Metropolitan Council with 56 elected and 5 nominated members. The Council had no legislative powers and it had only an advisory role in the governance of Delhi. The Council was later replaced by the Delhi Legislative Assembly through the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991. Another Act, viz the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991 supplements the constitutional provisions relating to the Legislative Assembly and the Council of Ministers and matters relating thereto.

Q3. For which of the following union territories the President cannot make regulations?

1. Pondicherry
2. Lakshadweep
3. Daman – Diu
4. Chandigarh

Ans. 4

• Explanation – Article 240:- Power of President to make regulations for certain Union territories- (A) the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; (B) Lakshadweep; (C) Dadra and Nagar Haveli; (D) Daman and Diu; (E) Pondicherry;

Q4. National Panchayat Day is celebrated on which day?

1. March 21
2. April 24
3. May 10
4. June 15

Ans.  2

• Explanation– Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, Panchayati Raj was institutionalized through village, intermediate and district level panchayats. This act came into force from April 24, 1993. Therefore, this day is celebrated every year as the anniversary of this day. The first National Panchayati Raj Day was celebrated in the year 2010.

Q5. Financial emergency is related to which of the following articles?

1. Article 352
2. Article 356
3. Article 360
4. Article 365

Ans.  3

• Explanation – Article 360: Provisions as to financial emergencies; If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or any part of the territory thereof is endangered, he may, by proclamation, make a declaration to that effect.

Q6. Which Article of the Constitution mentions the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

1. Article 146
2. Article 148
3. Article 150
4. Article 152

Ans.  2

• Explanation– Article 148. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India— (1) There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court

Q7. Who among the following is appointed as the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?

1. Person nominated by the President
2. Former chief justice of Supreme Court
3. Former chief justice of a High Court
4. Any Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

Ans. 2

• Explanation–
• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is an independent statutory body, established on 12 October 1993 under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• NHRC is a multi-member body consisting of 7 members including a chairman.
• The President and the members are appointed by the President on the basis of the recommendations of the High Level Committee headed by the Prime Minister.
• The term of the chairperson and members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
• In this the Chairman is the former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

Q8. In which year was the Central Pollution Board constituted?

1. 1972
2. 1974
3. 1975
4. 1980

Ans. 2

• Explanation– The Central Pollution Control Board of India was constituted as a statutory organization in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. After this, the Central Pollution Control Board was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

Q9. Who administers the oath to the ‘Pro Tem’ speaker?

1. President
2. Earlier Speaker
3. Leader of Lok Sabha
4. None of these

Ans. 1

• Explanation: Appointment and Swearing in of Speaker pro tem For this purpose, normally three other elected Members of the Lok Sabha, before whom the other Members may make or subscribe the oath/ affirmation, are also appointed by the President.

Q10. The “Speaker” of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Speaker of:

1. Business Advisory Committee
2. Privilege Committee
3. General Purpose Committee
4. Rules committee

Choose the right option:

1. 1,2,3 and 4
2. 1,2 and 3
3.  1,2 and 4
4.  1,3 and 4

Ans. 4

• Explanation: As per the above said
• Question the speaker of Loksabha is the ex- official Speaker of

1. Business Advisory Committee
2. General Purpose Committee
3. Rules committee.

• Hence, option D is the correct

Q11. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the President of India:

1. Attorney General of India
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Prime Minister of India
4. Vice President of India

Ans.  2

• Explanation: The Chief Justice of India administers the oath of the office to the President. In case the Chief Justice of India is unavailable the oath shall be administered by the senior most judge of the Supreme Court of Indi

Q12. Which article proposes to separate the judiciary from the executive under the Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. Article 51
2. Article 50
3. Article 49
4. Article 48

Ans.  2

• Explanation: Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51 mentions the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). Article 50 gives the principle of separation of the Judiciary from the executive.

Q13. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution has been established on the basis of a balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of Policy?

1. Kesavananda Bharti Case
2. Minerva Mills Case
3. Golak Nath Case
4. Vaman Rao Case

Ans. 2

• Explanation: Minerva Mills Case (1980) Supreme Court also held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles.

Q14. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains anti[1]defection provisions?

1. Second schedule
2. Fifth schedule
3. Eighth Schedule
4. Tenth schedule

Ans.  4

• Explanation: The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act. It deals with the Anti defection law i.e, provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection.

Q15. Which of the following writ petition can be filed for personal liberty?

1. Mandamus
2. Quo-warranto
3. Habeus Corpus
4. Certiorari

Answer. 3

• Explanation: Habeas corpus is a Latin word, which means – to present a body, i.e. to present a person physically. The literal meaning of Habeas Corpus is related to the body itself, to put it in legal language, to produce a person before the court.

Q16. Mandamus writ is issued by the court for –

1. Can ask a person to be present.
2. A person can be released for some time.
3. Can call a case from the court subordinate to him.
4. Issued to a person or entity to perform their public obligations and duties.

Answer.  4

• Explanation: Through the Mandamus issued by the Court, the Court is issued to any person or institution to perform their public obligations and duties.

Q17. What is the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy are binding whereas Fundamental Rights are not.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy are Arguable whereas Fundamental Rights are not.
3. Fundamental Rights are litigable while Directive Principles of State Policy are not.
4. None of the above.

Answer. 3

• Explanation: The relationship and difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy can be understood through the following points.
• Fundamental rights have a legal side attached to them i.e. they are litigable, while policy directives have a moral force attached to them i.e. they are not litigable.
• Fundamental rights have been taken from America, while Directive Principles have been taken from Irelan

Q18. Which article of the constitution provides for equal justice and free legal aid?

1. Article 39
2. Article 39A
3. Article 40
4. Article 44

Answer. 2

Q19. Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties among citizens in 1976?

1. Kothari Committee
2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
3. Ashok Mehta Committee
4. Swaran Singh Committee

Answer. 4

• Explanation: In 1976, the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was formed by the Congress party. It was created to make recommendations regarding Fundamental Duties, the need and imperative of which was felt during the conduct of the Internal Emergency (1975–1977). The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.

Q20. Which area of the country has been given special status under Article 371-J of the Indian Constitution?

1. Nagaland
2. Hyderabad and Karnataka
3. Maharashtra and Gujarat
4. Ladakh

Answer.  2

• Explanation: Article 371(J) provides special provision for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, which was included in the Constitution by the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2012. Under Article 371(J), the President is empowered to fix special duties for the Governor of Karnatak

Q21. Which of the following is not possible by an Act of Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution?

1. Formation of new states
2. Change of territories
3. Change in state boundaries
4. Entry of new states

Answer.  4

• Explanation Article 3 of the Constitution deals with the territories of existing states, Parliament can create new states, change the boundaries or names. Apart from this, any state can increase or decrease the are

Q22. The superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats are vested in:

1. Governor
2. Election commission in India
3. In District Panchayat Raj Officer
4. State election commission

Answer. 4

• Explanation: The provision of State Election Commission has been made under Article 243K (243K). The State Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats. Any provision may be made by the State Legislature on all matters relating to elections to Panchayats. Hence option (d) is correct.

Q23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Answer.  from the codes given below the lists:

 

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Answer. 4

Q24. The Constituent Assembly of India adopted the National Flag on which of the following dates?

1. January 22, 1950
2. January 24, 1950
3. July 22, 1947
4. July 22, 1948

Answer.3

• Explanation After the independence of our country, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru declared the present tricolor flag as the national flag on 22 July 1947 in the Constituent Assembly, which had three colors. In flag Saffron colour is in above, white in the middle and green in below part.

Q25. How many Subjects are there in the 11th schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 29
(d) 32

Answer.  3

• Explanation There are 29 subjects in the 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution ‘Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayat’. This schedule was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Article 243G/243G is related to this.

 

 

 

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