The Hindu Newspaper Analysis 18 November 2022 -

The Hindu Newspaper Analysis for UPSC

The Hindu Newspaper Analysis 17 November 2022

Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud on Thursday agreed to list in due course a writ petition to reconsider the Collegium system of judicial appointments to the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
The petition sought the revival of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), which briefly gave the government an equal role along with the judiciary in the appointment of judges to the constitutional courts before it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
The petitioner-in-person, advocate Mathews J. Nedumpara, with other lawyers, said the Constitution Bench judgment of October 2015 had thwarted the “will of the people” by striking down the 99th Constitution Amendment Act, which introduced the NJAC mechanism.
On 16 October 2015, in a 4-1 majority verdict, the Supreme Court held that both the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014, were unconstitutional as it would undermine the independence of the judiciary. The majority said the two laws affect the independence of the judiciary, and judicial appointments, among other things, should be protected from executive control.

The Hindu Editorial Today

Evolution of the System:

First Judges Case (1981):
- It declared that the “primacy” of the CJI’s (Chief Justice of
- India) recommendation on judicial appointments and transfers can be refused for “cogent reasons.”
- The ruling gave the Executive primacy over the Judiciary in judicial appointments for the next 12 years.
Second Judges Case (1993):
- SC introduced the Collegium system, holding that “consultation” really meant “concurrence”.
- It added that it was not the CJI’s individual opinion, but an institutional opinion formed in consultation with the two senior-most judges in the SC.
Third Judges Case (1998):
- SC on the President’s reference (Article 143) expanded the Collegium to a five-member body, comprising the CJI and four of his senior-most colleagues.

Although the dam is located in Kerala, it is operated by Tamil
Nadu following an 1886 lease indenture for 999 years (the Periyar Lake Lease Agreement) that was signed between the Maharaja of Travancore and the Secretary of State for India for the Periyar Irrigation works.
Constructed between 1887 and 1895, the dam redirected the river to flow towards the Bay of Bengal, instead of the Arabian Sea and provide water to the arid rain region of Madurai in Madras Presidency.
The dam is located on the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers inKerala’s Idukki district.

The discourse around political finance in India usually revolves around the issue of corruption. We see this in the political contestation over the introduction of electoral bonds. It is either presented as a pious instrument for ‘cleansing’ politics, by routing funding through legal channels, or as a murky mechanism for legitimating ‘institutionalised corruption’.
Thus, the corruption frame locks the issue of political funding into a superficial binary of ‘clean’ versus ‘dirty’, expressed in moral or legal terms.
The structure of political competition can be studied around three axes: institutional (the regulation of competition between ruling and Opposition parties); organisational (the regulation of competition within a party); and ideological (the role of ideas in determining competition between parties).

PMGKAY is a part of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19.
Its nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Finance.
It was initially announced for a three month period (April, May and June 2020), covering 80 crore ration cardholders. Later it was extended till November 2020.
However in April 2021, the government had announced its decision to restart the PMGKAY.
The scheme aimed at providing each person who is covered under the National Food Security Act 2013 with an additional 5 kg grains (wheat or rice) for free, in addition to the 5 kg of subsidised foodgrain already provided through the Public Distribution System (PDS). The new version of the PMGKAY lacks one of its important components which was there in 2020 PMGKAY i:e free-of-cost 1 kg pulses per month to each household covered under the NFSA.

The “off-site” for 30 to 40 diplomats will take place at Taj Exotica hotel on Havelock Island from November 25 to 27, where G-20 ‘Sherpa’ Amitabh Kant, ‘Sous Sherpa’ Abhay Thakur, and G-20 National Coordinator and former Foreign Secretary Harsh Shringla will give them a preview of India’s plans for the next year of its presidency.
The Ambassadors of Indonesia, Ina Krisnamurthi, and Brazil, Andre Aranha Correa Do Lago, who make up the troika of countries hosting the G-20 before and after India, respectively, will constitute the core group of countries involved in planning the G20 agenda, and are expected to attend.
Three Andaman Islands- the Havelock, Ross, and Neil Island will be officially renamed on the occasion of 75^thanniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose’s historic visit to the islands.
The Havelock Island will be renamed Swaraj Dweep, the Ross Island will be called Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Island and Neil island will be renamed Shaheed Dweep.
C. Bose hoisted the Indian national flag at the Gymkhana Ground (now Netaji Stadium) in Port Blair on 30 December 1943.
Andaman Islands were the first Indian territory to be freed from British rule after the Japanese defeated the British forces during World War II. At the time, Bose had named Andaman Island as Shaheed and Nicobar Island as Swaraj. Bose had also appointed Indian National Army (INA) General AD Loganathan as its Governor.

Moscow format is one of the several dialogue platforms on Afghanistan which began before the Taliban takeover of Kabul.
The format consists of Russia, China, Pakistan, Iran, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan and India.
The representatives at the talks also called for “complete unfreezing” of Afghanistan’s assets by Washington. Participating countries in the talks that included Russia, India, China, Pakistan, Iran, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan,
Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan called upon the Taliban to “fulfil its commitments to eradicate terrorism and drug trafficking”.

A comprehensive analysis titled “Executive summary of the rhino horn trafficking as a form of transnational organised crime (2012-2021): 2022 global threat assessment” was presented at the meeting of the Conference of Parties organised by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
There are five rhino species: white and black rhinos in Africa, as well as greater one-horned, Javan, and Sumatran rhinos in Asia.

Status on the IUCN Red List

The black rhino is critically endangered. The African species is the smaller of the two.
White Rhino is Near Threatened. Researchers used In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) to generate an embryo of a northern white rhino.
One-Horned Rhino is Vulnerable
Javan is Critically Endangered
Sumatran Rhino is Critically Endangered. In Malaysia, it has become extinct.
In India, only the Great One-Horned Rhino may be found.
It is the largest of the rhino species and is also known as the Indian rhino.
It has a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
They primarily graze, and their diet consists almost entirely of grasses, as well as leaves, shrub and tree branches, fruit, and aquatic plants.

An Election Commissioner can be proficient, competent, completely honest and armed with an outstanding record of service, but he may have a definite political leaning which may end up displaying itself in office, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court said on Thursday. Justice K.M. Joseph, leading a five-judge Bench, referred to how the 10th Chief Election Commissioner T.N. Seshan had managed to clean up the electoral system.
Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.
The constitution provides for the following provisions in relation to the composition of the election commission:
1.The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix.
2.The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president.
3.When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission.

Structure and Terms

The commission consists of one chief election commissioner and two election commissioners appointed by the President.
Tenure six years or up to the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
The Constitution does not prescribe terms of members of the election commission.
The chief election commissioner and two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salaries, allowances and other perks similar to those of a judge of the supreme court.
The secretariat of the commission is located in New Delhi.

Removal of Chief Election Commissioner

The constitution provides that the Chief election commissioner cannot be removed from his office except in the like manner and grounds as a judge of the supreme court.(removed by the president based on a resolution to that effect passed by a special majority of both the houses on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity).
Other election commissioners or regional commissioners can be removed from the office only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Q) With reference to Digital Shakti Campaign, consider the following statements:

It is launched by the National Commission for Women (NCW) in collaboration with CyberPeace Foundation and Meta.
It is aimed at making women digitally skilled and aware to stand-up against any illegal activity online.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

डिजिटल शक्ति अभियान के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:

इसे राष्ट्रीय महिला आयोग (NCW) ने साइबरपीस फाउंडेशन और मेटा के सहयोग से लॉन्च किया है।
इसका उद्देश्य महिलाओं को डिजिटल रूप से कुशल बनाना और ऑनलाइन किसी भी अवैध गतिविधि के खिलाफ खड़े होने के लिए जागरूक करना है।

उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

केवल 1
केवल 2
1 और 2 दोनों
न तो 1 और न ही 2

Explanation :

The National Commission for Women (NCW) has recently launched the fourth phase of Digital Shakti Campaign.

Digital Shakti started in June 2018 to help women across the nation to raise the awareness level on the digital front, to build resilience, and fight cyber-crime in the most effective ways.
The Digital Shakti 4.0 is focused on making women digitally skilled and aware to stand-up against any illegal/inappropriate activity online.
NCW launched the campaign in collaboration with CyberPeace Foundation and Meta.
Through this project, over 3 Lakh women across India have been made aware of cyber safety tips and tricks.
It is helping women in reporting & redressal mechanisms, data privacy and usage of technology for their benefits.

Q) With reference to North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), consider the following statements:

Articles 4 and 5 of NATO can only be invoked at the request of a NATO member.
Both Ukraine and Poland are member countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

उत्तर अटलांटिक संधि संगठन (NATO) के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:

नाटो के अनुच्छेद 4 और 5 को नाटो सदस्य के अनुरोध पर ही लागू किया जा सकता है।
यूक्रेन और पोलैंड दोनों सदस्य देश हैं।

उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

केवल 1
केवल 2
1 और 2 दोनों
न तो 1 और न ही 2

What is The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)?

It came into being after World War II as a counter to the Soviet Union’s possible expansion attempts in Europe. Then-US President Harry S Truman signed the 12-member treaty on April 4, 1949.
After the collapse of USSR in 1991, several eastern European nations previously members of the Soviet Union joined NATO. As of now, NATO comprise 30 members.

Differences between Articles 4 and 5 of the NATO

Under Article 4, any member state can convene a meeting of NATO members to “consult” when it feels its independence or security are threatened. It sends a strong political symbol to the greater world that NATO is concerned about a particular situation.
Article 5 is known as the “one-for-all and all-for-one” article. It states that an “armed attack” against one member is an attack against all and sets in motion the possibility of collective self-defense.
In theory, Articles 4 and 5 can only be invoked at the request of a NATO member. However, Article 5 has only been invoked once — immediately following the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks against the United States.
Article 5 was not invoked when Russia invaded Ukraine, because Ukraine is not a NATO member. But Poland is a NATO member, so if an investigation found any evidence it was a deliberate attack, it could have invoked Article 5.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched NIPUN Bharat Mission.

The Mission has been launched under the aegis of Samagra Shiksha Scheme.
It focuses on providing access and retaining children in foundational years of schooling.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

हाल ही में लॉन्च किए गए निपुन भारत मिशन के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।

समग्र शिक्षा योजना के तत्वावधान में मिशन शुरू किया गया है।
यह स्कूली शिक्षा के मूलभूत वर्षों में बच्चों तक पहुंच प्रदान करने और उन्हें बनाए रखने पर केंद्रित है।

उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

केवल 1
केवल 2
1 और 2 दोनों
न तो 1 और न ही 2

Explanation:

NIPUN Bharat (ensure that every child in the country attains foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27)
The mission planned as per the new National Education Policy (NEP) has been launched under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
It will focus on providing access and retaining children in foundational years of schooling, teacher capacity building; development of high quality and diversified student and teacher resources and tracking the progress of each child in achieving learning outcomes.

Q) With reference to The Places of Worship Act, 1991, consider the following statements:

It was enacted to freeze the status of all places of worship in the country as it was in 1991.
It will not apply to ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains that are covered by the AMASR Act 1958

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

पूजा स्थल अधिनियम, 1991 के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:

इसे देश में सभी पूजा स्थलों की स्थिति को स्थिर करने के लिए अधिनियमित किया गया था जैसा कि 1991 में था।
यह एएमएएसआर अधिनियम 1958 के तहत आने वाले प्राचीन और ऐतिहासिक स्मारकों और पुरातात्विक स्थलों और अवशेषों पर लागू नहीं होगा।

उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

केवल 1
केवल 2
1 और 2 दोनों
न तो 1 और न ही 2

Explanation:

S1: The Act says that no person shall convert any place of worship of any religious denomination into one of a different denomination or section. It contains a declaration that a place of worship shall continue to be as it was on August 15, 1947.
S2: The 1991 Act will not apply in some cases. It will not apply to ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains that are covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It will also not apply to any suit that has been finally settled or disposed of, any dispute that has been settled by the parties before the 1991 Act came into force, or to the conversion of any place that took place by acquiescence.
The Act specifically exempted from its purview the place of worship commonly referred to as Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid in Ayodhya. It was done to allow the pending litigation to continue as well as to preserve the scope for a negotiated settlement.

Q) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

Department of Science and Technology
Ministry of Employment
NITI Aayog
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

अटल इनोवेशन मिशन के तहत स्थापित किया गया है

विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी विभाग
रोजगार मंत्रालय
नीति आयोग
कौशल विकास और उद्यमिता मंत्रालय

Explanation: About AIM:

AIM (by Niti Aayog) is mandated to create an umbrella structure to oversee the innovation ecosystem of the country and revolutionise the innovation eco-system – touching upon the entire innovation life cycle through various programs.

Mains Practice Question:

Q) The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 remains inadequate in promoting incentive-based systems for children’s education without generating awareness about the importance of schooling. (UPSC 2022) (200 words)

स्कूली शिक्षा के महत्व के बारे में जागरूकता पैदा किए बिना बच्चों की शिक्षा के लिए प्रोत्साहन-आधारित प्रणालियों को बढ़ावा देने के लिए बच्चों को मुफ्त और अनिवार्य शिक्षा का अधिकार अधिनियम, 2009 अपर्याप्त है। विश्लेषण। (यूपीएससी 2022) (200 शब्द)

Introduction:

The Right to Education Act 2009 (RTE Act 2009) was enacted by the Parliament of India on 4th August 2009. It provides for free and compulsory education for children aged between 6-14 years under Article 21(A) of the Constitution of India. India is one of the 135 countries to have made education a fundamental right for every child.

Body:

Main Features of RTE Act 2009

Compulsory and free education for all up to class 8. Maintain proper norms and standards relating to Pupil-Teacher-Ratios Classrooms Separate toilets for girls and boys Drinking water facility Special provisions for admission of children out of school.
They will be admitted to an age-appropriate class. Zero tolerance against discrimination and harassment. No child can be held back or expelled from school till Class 8.
All private schools reserve 25 % of their seats for children belonging to socially disadvantaged and economically weaker sections.
Incentives provided to encourage parents and children to complete education Free of cost textbooks, uniforms and stationary items.
Mid-Day Meal scheme (PM Poshan): The scheme covers 11.80 crore children across Classes 1 to 8. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan To add additional classrooms, toilets and drinking facilities.
Providing education to the differently abled or children with special needs. To bridge the digital gap by offering computer education to the children. Strengthening for providing quality Education in Madrassas (SPQEM) To bring about qualitative education and follow National Education System standards in subjects. Providing Science labs, Computer labs in the secondary and higher secondary stage madrasas.

Steps Need to Be Taken to Create Awareness Campaign:

The representatives of local bodies and Sarpanch of Panchayats should organize campaigns in their local areas.
Awareness can be done with the help of social media platforms like Facebook and YouTube.
The Government teachers should visit the backward areas to make people aware about the incentives provided by the government like mid-day meals.

Conclusion:

It has been twelve years since the implementation of RTE Act, but it still has a long way to go to be called successful in its purpose. All parents want their child to get quality education and food, but due to limited awareness, deserving children are missing out of school. Hence, digital media campaigns can change the scenario and India’s demographic dividend will turn into an asset for the nation.

Mains Practice Question:

Q) How far do you agree with the view that the focus on lack of availability of food as the main cause of hunger takes the attention away from ineffective human development policies in India? (2018) (150 words)

आप इस विचार से कहाँ तक सहमत हैं कि भूख के मुख्य कारण के रूप में भोजन की उपलब्धता की कमी पर ध्यान देने से भारत में अप्रभावी मानव विकास नीतियों से ध्यान हट जाता है? (2018) (150 शब्द)